Sample Questions
220. When evaluating patient behaviors, consider the medications the
patient is receiving: exhibited behaviors may be manifestations of
schizophrenia or a drug reaction. By using the Bleuler’s four “As”
method, decide which variant is not a characteristic for schizophrenia?
A. Artisanal
B. Autism
C. Affect
D. Association
Answer: A
Explanation: The 4 “As” related to schizophrenia are Autism (preoccupied
with self), Affect (flat), Association (loose) and Ambivalence
(difficulty making decisions).
175. Narcotic analgesics are prepared for pain relief because they bind
to the various opiate receptor sites in the CNS and usually morphine is
the preferred narcotic. What side effect does morphine have?
A. Respiratory depression
B. High blood pressure
C. Stroke
D. Hallucinations
Answer: A
Explanation: Morphine can cause respiratory depression.
172. A 33-year old mother of 1 teenage daughter enters the hospital to
have her gallbladder removed in a same-day surgery using a scope instead
of an incision. What nursing needs will dominate in the post-anesthesia
phase?
A. Pain management, post-anesthesia precautions
B. Education about postoperative care, NPO, assist with meeting family
needs
C. Assessment, management of the operative suite.
D. pain management, dietary restrictions, activity
Answer: A
Explanation: The nursing needs that will dominate in the post-anesthesia
phase are pain management, and post-anesthesia precautions.
156. Monitoring for fetal position is important because the mother
cannot tell you she has back pain, which is the cardinal sign of
persistent posterior fetal position. Why do the regional blocks,
especially epidural and caudal, often result in assisted (forceps or
vacuum) delivery?
A. Due to the inability to push effectively in 3rd stage.
B. Due to the inability to push effectively in 4th stage.
C. Due to the inability to push effectively in 1st stage.
D. Due to the inability to push effectively in 2nd stage
Answer: D
Explanation: Regional blocks, especially epidural and caudal, often
result in assisted (forceps or vacuum) delivery due to the inability to
push effectively in 2nd stage.
216. Early detection of rheumatoid arthritis can decrease the amount of
bone and joint destruction and often the disease will go into remission.
What activity recommendations should the nurse provide a client with
rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Exercise of painful, swollen joints to strengthen them
B. Exercise joint to the point of pain so that the pain lessens
C. Make jerky movements during the exercise so that the pain lessens
D. Perform exercises slowly and smoothly
Answer: D
Explanation: A nurse should advise the client to perform exercises
slowly and smoothly so that no extra pain occurs.
166. After a client admitted that he has severe chest pain and states
that he feels a terrible, tearing sensation in his chest, the nurse
checks vital signs q1 hour, respiratory status and peripheral pulses.
What disease has been the client diagnosed with in this case?
A. Atrial tachycardia
B. Aortic stenosis
C. Dissecting aortic aneurysm
D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Answer: C
Explanation: A client that is admitted with severe chest pain and states
that he feels a terrible, tearing sensation in his chest will most
probably diagnosed with dissecting aortic aneurysm.
167. During aortic aneurysm repair, the large arteries are clamped for a
period of time and because of the fact that kidney damage can result,
the nurse should daily monitor BUN and creatinine levels. Which are the
normal BUN and creatinine levels?
A. Normal BUN: 10 to 20 mg/dl and normal creatinine is 20:1
B. Normal BUN: 5 to 15 mg/dl and normal creatinine is 15:1
C. Normal BUN: 20 to 25 mg/dl and normal creatinine is 25:1
D. Normal BUN: 10 to 25 mg/dl and normal creatinine is 10:1
Answer: A
Explanation: Normal BUN is 10 to 20 mg/dl and normal creatinine is 20:1.
40. The symptoms of left-sided cardiac failure and right-sided cardiac
failure are slightly different. From your knowledge about these
symptoms, which is the difference between the left and right sided
cardiac failure?
A. Left sided failure results in peripheral congestion
B. Right sided failure results in pulmonary congestion
C. Right sided failure results due to back up of circulation in the
right ventricle
D. Left sided failure results due to back up of circulation in the left
atrium
Answer: C
Explanation: The right sided failure results in peripheral congestion
due to back up of circulation in the right ventricle, while the
left-sided failure results in pulmonary congestion due to back-up of
circulation in the left ventricle.
21. A 42 yr. old secretary has visited 7 different doctors in the last
year with a complaint of chest pain, heart palpitations, and shortness
of breath being sure she is having a heart attack in spite of the
physician’s reassurance that all tests are normal. What type of disorder
is the old person most probably suffering of?
A. Inversion reaction
B. Conversion reaction
C. Hypochondriacal disorder
D. Somatization
Answer: C
Explanation: Persons being sure about a certain thing (heart attack in
this case) even if the results of the physical tests are normal are most
probably suffering of Hypochondriacal disorder.
22. Few years ago, a woman was involved in a motor vehicle accident that
killed her friend who was a passenger in the car she was driving was
unable to work since that day because of sever back pain, even this pain
is unrelieved by prescribed medications. What disorder does she most
probably have?
A. Inversion reaction
B. Conversion reaction
C. Hypochondriacal disorder
D. Somatization disorder
Answer: D
Explanation: A person experiencing a pain unrelieved by prescribed
medications is most probably suffering of somatization disorder.
23. After the threat with death by a stranger, the 18 year old Samantha
is suddenly unable to recall certain events in her life. What
dissociative disorder is she most probably suffering of?
A. Psychogenic amnesia
B. psychogenic fugue
C. multiple personality disorder
D. depersonalization disorder
Answer: A
Explanation: Psychogenic amnesia is the sudden inability to recall
certain events in one’s life.
24. A person is brought to the hospital after he left home and is unable
to recall their identity or their past. What dissociative disorder is
associated with these characteristics?
A. Psychogenic amnesia
B. psychogenic fugue
C. multiple personality disorder
D. depersonalization disorder
Answer: B
Explanation: A psychogenic fugue state is characterized by the
individual leaving home and being unable to recall their identity or
their past.
25. A person with depersonalization disorder suffers of temporary loss
of one’s reality, a loss of the ability to feel and express emotions, or
a sense of “strangeness” in the surrounding environment. What type of
fear do these persons experience?
A. fear of “going crazy”
B. fear of “getting lost”
C. fear of “dying”
D. fear of “being alone”
Answer: A
Explanation: Individuals with depersonalization disorder express a fear
of “going crazy”.
26. A person is unable to make decisions for self, and allows others to
assume responsibility for his/her life. What personality disorder does
this person most probably have?
A. Histrionic Personality
B. Dependent Personality
C. Borderline Personality
D. Schizoid Personality
Answer: B
Explanation: The manifestations of people having Dependent Personality
are as follows: they are unable to make decisions for self, allows
others to assume responsibility for his/her life.
27. A 17 year old adolescent is unable to conform to social norms and
his mother is very worried about that. What personality disorder is he
experiencing at his age?
A. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality
B. Passive-Aggressive Personality
C. Antisocial Personality
D. Borderline Personality
Answer: C
Explanation: Clients with Antisocial Personality are unable to conform
to social norms.
28. An adolescent is dramatic, flamboyant, and needs to be the center of
attention. What personality disorder might he/she most probably have?
A. Histrionic Personality
B. Narcissistic Personality
C. Maladaptive Personality
D. Borderline Personality
Answer: A
Explanation: Histrionic Personality = Dramatic, flamboyant, needs to be
the center of attention.
29. A client with Narcissistic Personality has feelings of
self-importance and entitlement and exploits others to get own needs
met. What thinks a client with Maladaptive Personality about himself?
A. Does not think anything he/she does is wrong, e.g., authorities are
“out to get them.”
B. Suspicious, shows, mistrust of others, is watchful and secretive
C. Unable to make decisions for self, allows others to assume
responsibility for his/her life
D. Inability to conform to social norms
Answer: A
Explanation: Maladaptive Personality = Does not think anything he/she
does is wrong, e.g., authorities are “out to get them.”
1. A patient who is 32 weeks gestation is experiencing dark, red vaginal
bleeding and the nurse determines the FHR to be 100 bpm and her abdomen
is rigid and boardlike. What action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer O2 per face mask
B. Abdominal manipulation
C. vaginal manipulation
D. Abdominal exam
Answer: A
Explanation: The nurse should immediately notify the healthcare provider
and no abdominal or vaginal manipulation or exams should be done.
Administer O2 per face mask and monitor for bleeding at IV sites and
gums due to the increased risk of DIC.
2. A patient who is 32 weeks gestation has the following symptoms: dark,
red vaginal bleeding, 100 bpm FHR, rigid abdomen and severe pain. What
is the difference between abruptio placentae and placenta previa?
A. abruptio placentae: painless bright red bleeding occurring in the
third trimester
B. abruptio placentae: occurs in the 2nd trimester
C. placenta previa: occurs in the 2nd trimester
D. placenta previa: painless bright red bleeding occurring in the third
trimester
Answer: D
Explanation: The nurse must use knowledge base to differentiate between
abruptio placentae (dark, red vaginal bleeding, 100 bpm FHR, rigid
abdomen and severe pain) from placenta previa (painless bright red
bleeding occurring in the third trimester).
3. A nurse must use knowledge base to differentiate between abruptio
placentae (dark, red vaginal bleeding, 100 bpm FHR, rigid abdomen and
severe pain) from placenta previa (painless bright red bleeding
occurring in the third trimester). What assessments should be done in
case of a patient suspected of abruptio placentae or placenta previa?
A. abdominal or vaginal manipulation
B. Leopold’s maneuvers
C. internal monitoring
D. Monitor for bleeding at IV sites and gums due to the increased risk
of DIC
Answer: D
Explanation: Patients with abruptio placentae or placenta previa (actual
or suspected) should have NO abdominal or vaginal manipulation. NO
Leopold’s maneuvers. NO vaginal exams. NO rectal exams, enemas, or
suppositories. NO internal monitoring.
4. A patient suspected of abruptio placentae or placenta previa should
be monitorized for bleeding at IV sites and gums due to the increased
risk of DIC. What isn’t DIC related to?
A. cervical carcinoma
B. fetal demise
C. infection/sepsis
D. pregnancy-induced hypertension
Answer: A
Explanation: DIC is related to fetal demise, infection/sepsis,
pregnancy-induced hypertension (Preeclampsia) and abruptio palcentae.
Cervical carcinoma is related to Podophyllin.
5. A patient which has been diagnosed with CVA has symptoms of aphasia,
right hemiparesis, but no memory or hearing deficit. In what hemisphere
has the patient most probably suffered a lesion?
A. Left
B. Superior left side
C. Inferior right side
D. Right
Answer: D
Explanation: A patient with a diagnosis of CVA presents with symptoms of
aphasia, right hemiparesis, but no memory or hearing deficit has
suffered a lesion in the left hemisphere.
6. A patient brought to the emergency room has the following symptoms:
hypertension, , bladder and bowel distention, exaggerated autonomic
responses, headache, sweating, goose bumps, and bradycardia. What will
the patient be diagnosed with in this case?
A. spinal shock
B. increased ICP
C. cerebral vascular accident
D. autonomic dysreflexia
Answer: D
Explanation: The symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia are hypertension,
bladder and bowel distention, exaggerated autonomic responses, headache,
sweating, goose bumps, and bradycardia.
1.
If a child is on oral iron medication, the family
should be thought by the nurse how it should be administered. Out of the
following options, what oral iron administration advice is
inappropriate?
A.
Oral iron should be given on empty stomach
B.
Oral iron should be given with citrus juices
C.
Oral iron should be given with dairy products
D.
A dropper or straw should be used to avoid
discoloring teeth
Answer: C
Explanation: Iron can be fatal in severe overdose
and as a result, it should be kept away from children.
Also, do not give it with dairy products.
2.
In Autosomal recessive disease, both parents must be
heterozygous, or carriers of the recessive trait, for the disease to be
expressed in their offspring. If both parents are heterozygous, what is
the chance the baby to have the disease as well?
A.
1:2
B.
1:3
C.
1:4
D.
1:1
Answer: C
Explanation: With each pregnancy, there is a 1:4 chance of the infant
having the disease.
3.
When it comes to X-linked recessive trait, the trait
is carried on the X chromosome, therefore, usually affects male
offspring, (e.g., hemophilia). What is the chance for a pregnant woman
carrier her offspring to get the disease?
A.
Male child: 75% of having the disease
B.
Female child: 50% of having the disease
C.
Male child: 50% of having the disease
D.
Female child: 25% of caring the disease
Answer: C
Explanation: With each pregnancy of a woman who is a carrier there is a
25% chance of having a child with hemophilia.
If the child is male, he has a 50% chance of having hemophilia.
If the child is female, she has a 50% chance of being a carrier.
4.
Supplemental iron is not given to clients with
sickle cell anemia because the anemia is not caused by iron deficiency.
What aspect is very important in treatment of sickle cell disease
because it promotes hemodilution and circulation of red cells through
the blood vessels?
A.
HgbAS
B.
HGBS
C.
Hydration
D.
Hydrotherapy
Answer: C
Explanation: Hydration is very important in treatment of sickle cell
disease because it promotes hemodilution and circulation of red cells
through the blood vessels.
5.
Allopurinol, a xanthine-oxidase inhibitor, is
administered to prevent renal damage from uric acid build up during
cellular lysis. In what drugs combination is Prednisone usually used for
reducing the mitosis of lymphocytes?
A.
epinephrine
B.
antineoplastic drugs
C.
l-asparaginase
D.
oral iron
Answer: B
Explanation: Prednisone is frequently used in combination with
antineoplastic drugs to reduce the mitosis of lymphocytes.
Allopurinol, a xanthine-oxidase inhibitor, is also administered
to prevent renal damage from uric acid build up during cellular lysis.
6.
An infant with hypothyroidism is often described as
a “good, quiet baby” by the parents. What early disease detection is
essential in preventing mental retardation in infants?
A.
Hyperthyroidism
B.
Phenylhetonuria
C.
Diabetes mellitus
D.
Ketoacidosis
Answer: B
Explanation: Early detection of hypothyroidism and phenylhetonuria is
essential in preventing mental retardation in infants.
Knowledge of normal growth and development is important, since a
lack of attaintment can be used to detect the existence of these
metabolic/endocrine disorders and attainment can be used for evaluating
the treatment’s effect.
7.
Diabetes mellitus (DM) in children was typically
diagnosed as insulin dependent diabetes until recently.
What diabetes type has been discovered to occur more often in
Native-American, African-American, and Hispanic children and
adolescents?
A.
Type 1
B.
Type 2
C.
Type 3
D.
Type 4
Answer: B
Explanation: Diabetes mellitus (DM) in children was typically diagnosed
as insulin dependent diabetes (Type I) until recently.
A marked increase in Type II DM has occurred recently in the US,
particularly among Native-American, African-American, and Hispanic
children and adolescents.
8.
There has been an increase in the number of children
diagnosed with Type II diabetes with the increasing rate of obesity in
children is thought to be a contributing factor. What other factors are
thought to be contributing in the increase of Type II diabetes cases?
A.
Hypotension
B.
Hypokalaemia
C.
Lack of physical activity
D.
Hyperkalaemia
Answer: C
Explanation: There has been an increase in the number of children
diagnosed with Type II diabetes.
The increasing rate of obesity in children is thought to be a
contributing factor. Other
contributing factors include lack of physical activity and a family
history of Type II diabetes.
9.
Fractures in older children are common as they fall
during play and are involved in motor vehicle accidents. What fractures
in children are related to child abuse?
A.
Greenstick Fracture
B.
Growth Plate Fracture
C.
Torus Fracture
D.
Spiral fracture
Answer: D
Explanation: Spiral fractures (caused by twisting)
and fractures in infants may be related to child abuse.
10.
Skin traction for fracture reduction should not be
removed unless prescribed by healthcare provider. What fractures have
serious consequences in terms of growth of the affected limb?
A.
Greenstick Fracture
B.
Plate Fracture
C.
Torus Fracture
D.
Spiral fracture
Answer: B
Explanation: Fractures involving the epiphyseal
plate (growth plate) can have serious consequences in terms of growth of
the affected limb.
11.
Corticosteroids are used short term in low doses
during exacerbations. What side effect do Corticosteroids have on long
term?
A.
Adverse effects on growth
B.
Adverse effects on bone structure
C.
Hypoglycemia
D.
Hypocalcemia
Answer: A
Explanation: Corticosteroids are used short term in low doses during
exacerbations. Long-term use
is avoided due to side effects and their adverse effect on growth.
12.
Skin traction for fracture reduction should not be
removed unless prescribed by healthcare provider. What do the pin sites
can usually cause in an infant client?
A.
Hypoglycemia
B.
Hypocalcemia
C.
Infection
D.
Low vitamin K concentration
Answer: C
Explanation: Pin sites can be sources of infection.
The nurse should monitor signs of infection and cleanse and dress
pin sites as prescribed.
13.
The menstrual phase varies in length for most women.
How many days usually are from ovulation to the beginning of the next
menstrual cycle?
A.
12 days
B.
14 days
C.
16 days
D.
18 days
Answer: B
Explanation: From ovulation to the beginning of the next menstrual cycle
is usually exactly 14 days.
In other words, ovulation occurs 14 days before the next menstrual
period.
14.
Sperm lives approximately 3 days and eggs live about
24 hours. Which is the time interval a couple should avoid unprotected
intercourse after the ovulation?
A.
24 hours
B.
48 hours
C.
72 hours
D.
128 hours
Answer: C
Explanation: From ovulation to the beginning of the next menstrual cycle
is usually exactly 14 days.
In other words, ovulation occurs 14 days before the next menstrual
period.
15.
A woman who is 6 weeks pregnant has the following
maternal history: a 2 yr. old healthy daughter, a miscarriage at 10
weeks, 3 years ago and an elective abortion at 6 weeks, 5 years ago. How
can be described gravidity and parity in this case?
A.
gravida 1, para 4
B.
gravida 2, para 4
C.
gravida 4, para 1
D.
gravida 4, para 2
Answer: C
Explanation: With this pregnancy, the women is a gravida 4, para 1 (only
1 delivery after 20 weeks gestation).
16.
The first day of a women’s last normal menstrual
period was October 17. By using Nagele’s rule, what is the EDB?
A.
July 10
B.
July 24
C.
June 10
D.
June 24
Answer: B
Explanation: If the first day of a woman’s last normal menstrual period
was October 17, her EDB using Nagele’s rule is July 24. Count back 3
months and add 7 days (always give February 28 days).
17.
At approximately 28 to 32 weeks gestation, the
maximum plasma volume increase of 25 to 40% occurs, resulting in normal
hemodilution of pregnancy and Hct values of 32 to 42%.
What does Hct in reality represent, even if its values may look
“good”?
A.
pregnancy-induced Hyperglycemia
B.
pregnancy-induced Hypoglycemia
C.
pregnancy-induced Hypertension
D.
pregnancy-induced Hypotension
Answer: C
Explanation: High Hct values may look “good,” but in reality represent
pregnancy-induced hypertension and a depleted vascular space.
18.
A 22-year old primigravida at 12 weeks gestation has
a high Hgb of 9.6 g/dl and a Hct of 31% and she has gained 3 pounds
during the first trimester, even if the gain of3.5 to 5 pounds during
the first trimester is recommended. Taking into consideration that the
client is anemic, what supplements should be recommended to her?
A.
Potassium
B.
Magnesium
C.
Iron
D.
Calcium
Answer: C
Explanation: For the anemic pregnant client, supplemental iron and a diet
higher in iron are needed.
19.
As pregnancy advances, the uterus presses on
abdominal vessels (vena cava and aorta). What position is best for
increasing perfusion according to the latest research?
A.
left side-lying position
B.
knee-chest position
C.
side-lying position
D.
right side-lying position
Answer: B
Explanation: Recent research indicates that the knee-chest position is
best for increasing perfusion and that the side-lying position (either
left or right side-lying) is the second most desirable position to
increase perfusion. Prior to
this research, the left side-lying position was usually encouraged.
20.
Fetal well-being is determined by assessing fundal
height, fetal heart tones/rate, fetal movement and uterine activity
(contractions). What do the
changes in fetal heart rate indicate?
A.
leukorrhea
B.
compromised blood flow to the fetus
C.
Fluid discharge from vagina
D.
Change in fetal movement
Answer: B
Explanation: Changes in fetal heart rate are the first and most important
indicator of compromised blood flow to the fetus, and these changes
require action!
21.
Changes in fetal heart rate are the first and most
important indicator of compromised blood flow to the fetus, and these
changes require action! What
is the normal FHR in a pregnant woman?
A.
150 to 180 bpm
B.
160 to 190 bpm
C.
110 to 160 bpm
D.
120 to 150 bpm
Answer: C
Explanation: Changes in fetal heart rate are the first and most important
indicator of compromised blood flow to the fetus, and these changes
require action! Remember,
the normal FHR is 110 to 160 bpm.
22.
A 28 years old pregnant woman has the following
symptoms: visual disturbance, persistent vomiting, swelling of face,
fingers or sacrum and severe continuous headache. What do these symptoms
most probably indicate?
A.
Preeclampsia/eclampsia
B.
Dysuria
C.
Chills
D.
Fluid discharge from vagina
Answer: A
Explanation: Visual disturbance, persistent vomiting, swelling of face,
fingers or sacrum and severe continuous headache are in pregnant woman
possible indications of indications of preeclampsia/eclampsia.
23.
A nurse should teach the pregnant clients to
immediately report any of the following danger signs because early
intervention can optimize maternal and fetal outcome. Which are the
signs of infection in a pregnant woman?
A.
FHR is 110 to 160 bpm
B.
Chills
C.
Persistent vomiting
D.
Visual disturbances
Answer: B
Explanation: Signs of infection in a pregnant woman are Chills, Dysuria,
pain in abdomen, fluid discharge from vagina and increased FHR.
24.
A pregnant client has temperature over 100.4 F,
Dysuria and fluid discharge from vagina. What could these signs most
probably indicate?
A.
Preeclampsia
B.
Eclampsia
C.
Infection
D.
Change in fetal movement
Answer: C
Explanation: Temperature over 100.4 F, Dysuria and fluid discharge from
vagina are signs of infection.
25.
Most providers prescribe prenatal vitamins to ensure
that the client receives an adequate intake of vitamins.
However, only the healthcare provider can prescribe prenatal
vitamins. Which is the quantity of milk a pregnant woman should drink
per day for ensuring that the daily calcium needs are met?
A.
1/2 quart milk
B.
1/3 quart milk
C.
1/4 quart milk
D.
1 quart milk
Answer: D
Explanation: It is recommended that pregnant women drink one quart of
milk/day. This will ensure
that the daily calcium needs are met an help to alleviate the occurrence
of leg cramps.
26.
The screening for neural tube defects is highly
associated with both false positives and false negatives. Through what
does the screening for neural tube defects in some states?
A.
spina bifida
B.
maternal serum AFP levels
C.
MSAFP
D.
distribution curves of maternal serum APP
Answer: B
Explanation: In some states, the screening for neural tube defects
through either
maternal serum AFP levels or amniotic fluid AFP levels is
mandated by state law. This
screening test is highly associated with both false positives and false
negatives.
27.
In a 24 years old pregnant woman, the amniocentesis
is done in early pregnancy. How should the bladder be to help support
the uterus and to help push the uterus up in the abdomen for easy
access?
A.
Empty
B.
Full
C.
¼ Empty
D.
½ Full
Answer: B
Explanation: When an amniocentesis is done in early pregnancy, the
bladder must be full to help support the uterus and to help push the
uterus up in the abdomen for easy access.
28.
In a 24 years old pregnant woman, the amniocentesis
is done in late pregnancy. How should the bladder be to avoid puncturing
the bladder?
A.
Empty
B.
Full
C.
¼ Empty
D.
½ Full
Answer: A
Explanation: When an amniocentesis is done in late pregnancy, the bladder
must be empty to avoid puncturing the bladder.
29.
The early decelerations in fetal heart rate
monitoring are the transient decrease in heart rate which coincides with
the onset of the uterine contraction. Between what cm do the early
decelerations caused by head compression and fetal descent usually occur
in the 2nd stage?
A.
2 and 6 cm
B.
4 and 7 cm
C.
3 and 8 cm
D.
7 and 10 cm
Answer: B
Explanation: Early decelerations, caused by head compression and fetal
descent, usually occur between 4 and 7 cm and in the 2nd
stage. Check for labor
progress if early decelerations are noted.
30.
A nurse consults a mother and detects cord prolapse.
How should the examiner position the pregnant woman to relieve pressure
on the cord?
A.
side-lying position
B.
right side-lying position
C.
High Flower’s position
D.
knee-chest position
Answer: D
Explanation: If cord prolapse is detected, the examiner should position
the mother to relieve pressure on the cord (i.e., knee-chest position)
or push the presenting part off the cord until IMMEDIATE Cesarean
delivery can be accomplished.
31.
A nurse consults a pregnant mother and detects late
decelerations which indicate uteroplacental insufficiency. What
conditions are late decelerations associated with?
A.
Down Syndrome, AIDS, abruptio placentae
B.
postmaturity, preeclampsia, diabetes mellitus,
cardiac disease, and abruptio placentae
C.
Autism, renal failure, renal insufficiency and
cardiac disease
D.
Kidney failure, cardiac disease, Digitalis toxicity
Answer: B
Explanation: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency and
are associated with conditions such as postmaturity, preeclampsia,
diabetes mellitus, cardiac disease, and abruptio placentae.
32.
At the examination of an expecting woman, the
deceleration patterns are associated with decreased or absent
variability and tachycardia. What should be done immediately in this
case?
A.
Position the mother in High Flower’s position
B.
Position the mother in knee-chest position
C.
immediate intervention and fetal assessment
D.
Spontaneous abortion
Answer: C
Explanation: When deceleration patterns (late or variable) are associated
with decreased or absent variability and tachycardia, the situation is
OMINOUS (potentially disastrous) and requires immediate intervention and
fetal assessment.
33.
In case of a decrease in uteroplacental perfusion,
the nursing interventions should include changing maternal position,
discontinuing Pitocin infusion, administering oxygen and notifying the
healthcare provider. In what do the decreases in uteroplacental
perfusion result?
A.
variable decelerations
B.
late decelerations
C.
early decelerations
D.
ominous decelerations
Answer: B
Explanation: A decrease in uteroplacental perfusion results in late
decelerations; cord compression results in a pattern of variable
decelerations.
34.
The danger of nipple stimulation lies in controlling
the “dose” of oxytocin stimulated from the posterior pituitary and the
chance of hyper-stimulation or tetany is increased. How long do the
contractions last in case of hyper-stimulation?
A.
over 90 sec
B.
over 120 sec
C.
over 150 sec
D.
over 100 sec
Answer: A
Explanation: The contractions last in case of hyper-stimulation over 90
seconds or there are contractions with less than 30 seconds in between.
35.
Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS) can be
done during pregnancy under ultrasound for prenatal diagnosis and
therapy. What testing
can not be done using this method?
A.
clotting disorders
B.
AIDS testing
C.
Sepsis
D.
Genetic testing
Answer: B
Explanation: Hemoglobinopathies, clotting disorders, sepsis, and some
genetic testing can be done using this method.
36.
At the monthly examination, the nurse has detected
an extra uterine pregnancy in the 29 year old woman. Which is the L/S
survival ratio for fetal maturity?
A.
1:2
B.
2:0
C.
2:1
D.
1:1
Answer: C
Explanation: The most important determinant of fetal maturity for
extra-uterine survival is the L/S ratio (2:1 or higher).
37.
A 32 year old woman comes to the monthly examination
complaining to have the following symptoms: discomfort in abdomen and
contractions decrease in intensity and/or frequency with ambulation.
What will this client be diagnosed with?
A.
True labor
B.
False labor
C.
Intrauterine labor
D.
Extra-uterine labor
Answer: B
Explanation: In case of a false labor, the discomfort is in abdomen and
contractions decrease in intensity and/or frequency with ambulation and
no lower back pain is present.
38.
A nurse is consulting a 19 years old pregnant client
which made an abortion 12 months ago due to infection. What is the
normal maternal BP that indicates a normal health situation for the
client?
A.
BP: <120/90
B.
BP: <180/90
C.
BP: <140/90
D.
BP: <150/120
Answer: C
Explanation: The normal maternal BP is <140/90.
39.
A nurse is consulting a 19 years old pregnant client
which made an abortion 12 months ago due to infection. What is the
normal maternal pulse that indicates a normal health situation for the
client?
A.
<150 bpm
B.
<100 bpm
C.
<130 bpm
D.
<120 bpm
Answer: B
Explanation: The normal maternal pulse is <100 bpm.
40.
A nurse is consulting a 29 years old pregnant client
which had prior pregnancy complications due to early decelerations. What
is the normal maternal temperature for her?
A.
<100.4 F
B.
<110.4 F
C.
<120.4 F
D.
<130.4 F
Answer: A
Explanation: The normal maternal temperature for any pregnant client is
<100.4 F.
41.
The most important determinant of fetal maturity for
extra-uterine survival is the L/S ratio (2:1 or higher). What is often
the reason for slight elevation?
A.
Low maternal temperature
B.
High maternal pulse
C.
Dehydration
D.
Hypocalcemia
Answer: C
Explanation: Slight elevation is often due to dehydration and the work of
labor. Anything higher
indicates infection and must be reported immediately.
42.
Enema may be refused by woman due to pre-labor
diarrhea or recent, large bowel movement and should not be administered
to a client in active labor. What should a person watch for if head is
floating?
A.
Infection
B.
Hypoglycemia
C.
Hypocalcemia
D.
Cord prolapse
Answer: D
Explanation: An enema should not be administered to a client in active
labor. If head is
floating, watch for cord prolapse.
43.
An enema should not be administered to a client in
active labor. What color does the meconium-strained fluid that may
indicate fetal stress?
A.
Dark red- purple
B.
Yellow-green
C.
Green-red
D.
Yellow-Red
Answer: B
Explanation: Meconium-stained fluid is yellow-green and may indicate
fetal stress.
44.
A pregnant client comes to the hospital with the
following symptoms: dizziness, tingling on fingers, and stiff mouth.
What will she most probably be diagnosed with?
A.
respiratory alkalosis
B.
digitalis toxicity
C.
hyperglycemia
D.
hypocalcemia
Answer: A
Explanation: Hyperventilation results in respiratory alkalosis due to
blowing off too much CO2. Symptoms include: dizziness, tingling on
fingers, and stiff mouth.
45.
A pregnant client with dizziness, tingling on
fingers and stiff mouth is suffering of hyperventilation resulting in
respiratory alkalosis. What is the cause of hyperventilation?
A.
Blowing too much O2
B.
Blowing too much H2O
C.
Lack of Fe
D.
Lack of CH2
Answer: A
Explanation: Hyperventilation results in respiratory alkalosis due to
blowing off too much CO2.
Have woman breathe into her cupped hands or a paper bag in order
to rebreathe CO2.
46.
If pushing starts too early, the cervix can become
edematous and never fully dilate. Which is the cervix diameter when it
is completely dilated?
A.
15 cm
B.
10 cm
C.
8 cm
D.
18 cm
Answer: B
Explanation: Cervix should be completely dilated (10 cm) before the
client begins pushing. If
pushing starts too early, the cervix can become edematous and never
fully dilate.
47.
A nurse should determine cervical dilation before
allowing client to push. What happens in the case that the client starts
pushing too early?
A.
Cervix becomes edematous
B.
Client can pass out because of the pain caused by
the not dilated cervix
C.
Fetus can suffer traumas
D.
Fetus can die
Answer: A
Explanation: Determine cervical dilation before allowing client to push.
Cervix should be completely dilated (10 cm) before the client
begins pushing. If pushing
starts too early, the cervix can become edematous and never fully
dilate.
48.
Oxytocin drug causes the uterus to contract and
because of that, the moment when it is administered is very important.
From your knowledge about this fact, when should oxytocin be
administered?
A.
After cervix is dilated
B.
Before cervix is dilated
C.
after the placenta is delivered
D.
before the placenta is delivered
Answer: C
Explanation: Give the oxytocin after the placenta is delivered because
the drug will cause the uterus to contract.
If the oxytocic drug is administered before the placenta is
delivered, it may result in a retained placenta, which predisposes the
client to hemorrhage and infection.
49.
Oxytocin should be administered after the placenta
is delivered because the drug will cause the uterus to contract. What
can happen if the drug is administered before placenta is delivered?
A.
Will predispose the client to nausea
B.
Will predispose the client to amnesia
C.
Will predispose the client to hemorrhage
D.
Will predispose the client to hypocalcemia
Answer: C
Explanation: If the oxytocic drug is administered before the placenta is
delivered, it may result in a retained placenta, which predisposes the
client to hemorrhage and infection.
50.
After the delivery, two of the perineal pads should
be placed on perineum. What application should the nurse make use of
after delivery?
A.
Apply from back to front so that the pad is dragged
across the anus
B.
Apply from front to back so that the pad is dragged
across the anus
C.
Not apply from back to front being careful not to
drag pad across the anus
D.
Apply from front to back being careful not to drag
pad across the anus
Answer: D
Explanation: The applications of perineal pads after delivery are:
placing two on perineum, not touching inside of pad and applying from
front to back, being careful not to drag pad across the anus.
51.
Pitocin should be given with caution to clients with
hypertension. What drug shouldn’t be given to clients with hypertension
due to its vasoconstrictive action?
A.
analgesics
B.
meperidine
C.
codeine
D.
methergine
Answer: D
Explanation: Methergine is NOT given to clients with hypertension due to
its vasoconstrictive action.
Pitocin is given with caution to those with hypertension.
52.
In the first 12 hours after delivery, the 22 years
old client shows signs of hemorrhage. What is one of the common reasons
for uterine atony and/or hemorrhage in the first 24 hours after
delivery?
A.
Empty bladder
B.
Full bladder
C.
Hypoglycemia
D.
Low blood pressure
Answer: B
Explanation: FULL BLADDER is one of the most common reasons for uterine
atony and/or hemorrhage in the first 24 hours after delivery.
53.
When examining a client after delivery, the nurse
finds the fundus soft, boggy, and displaced above and to the right of
the umbilicus. What action should the nurse take first in this case?
A.
have the client empty her bladder
B.
perform fundal massage
C.
administer narcotic analgesics
D.
administer codeine and meperidine
Answer: B
Explanation: First the nurse should perform fundal massage; then have the
client empty her bladder.
54.
When examining a client after delivery, the nurse
finds the fundus soft, boggy, and displaced above and to the right of
the umbilicus. After performing fundal massage and having the client
emptying her bladder when should the nurse recheck fundus?
A.
q15 minutes X 4 (1 hour)
B.
q 45 minutes X 2 (1.5 hours);
C.
q 30 minutes X 4 (2 hour);
D.
q 30 minutes X 2 (1 hour);
Answer: A
Explanation: The nurse should recheck fundus q15 minutes X 4 (1 hour);
q30 minutes X 2 hours.
55.
If narcotic analgesics (codeine, meperidine) are
given, a nurse should raise side rails and place call light within reach
and also instruct client not to get out of bed or ambulate without
assistance. What is the side effect the client should know about?
A.
Nausea
B.
Diarrhea
C.
Amnesia
D.
Drowsiness
Answer: D
Explanation: If narcotic analgesics (codeine, meperidine) are given, the
client should be cautioned about drowsiness as a side effect.
56.
Tears cause pain and swelling and because of that
rectal manipulations should be avoided. What do the 2nd
degree tear involve?
A.
epidermis
B.
dermis, muscle, and fascia
C.
anal sphincter
D.
rectal mucosa
Answer: B
Explanation: A 2nd degree tear involves dermis, muscle, and
fascia.
57.
Tears cause pain and swelling and because of that
rectal manipulations should be avoided. What tear degree extends into
the anal sphincter?
A.
1st degree tear
B.
2nd degree tear
C.
3rd degree tear
D.
4th degree tear
Answer: C
Explanation: A 3rd degree tear extends into the anal
sphincter.
58.
Rectal manipulations should be avoided because tears
cause pain and swelling. What degree tear extends up the rectal mucosa?
A.
1st degree tear
B.
2nd degree tear
C.
3rd degree tear
D.
4th degree tear
Answer: D
Explanation: A 4th degree tear extends up the rectal mucosa.
59.
Tears cause pain and swelling and because of that
rectal manipulations should be avoided. What do the first degree tear
involves?
A.
epidermis
B.
dermis, muscle, and fascia
C.
anal sphincter
D.
rectal mucosa
Answer: A
Explanation: A 1st degree tear involves only the epidermis.
60.
If it was documented that the fetus passed meconium
in utero or the nurse noted LATE passage of meconium in delivery room,
the neonate MUST be attended by a pediatrician, neonatologist, and/or
nurse practitioner to determine, through endotracheal tube observation
and suction, the presence of meconium below the cords. What can this
fact result in?
A.
Down syndrome
B.
pneumonitis/meconium aspiration syndrome
C.
Stanley syndrome
D.
Asperger syndrome
Answer: B
Explanation: It can result in pneumonitis/meconium aspiration syndrome,
which will necessitate a sepsis workup including a chest x-ray early in
the transitional newborn period.
61.
Apgar scores of 6 or < at 5 minutes require an
additional Apgar assessment at 10 minutes. When should the resuscitation
begin of the compromised neonate?
A.
Only after a 1 minute Apgar
B.
Only after 2 minute Apgar
C.
Do not wait until a 1 minute Apgar is assigned to
begin resuscitation
D.
Only after 5 minute Apgar
Answer: C
Explanation: Do not wait until a 1 minute Apgar is assigned to begin
resuscitation of the compromised neonate.
62.
A client in labor needs administration of
analgesics. What type of analgesic administration is preferred in this
case because the onset and peak occurs more quickly and duration of the
drug is shorter?
A.
IM
B.
IV
C.
Oral administration
D.
VI
Answer: B
Explanation: IV administration of analgesics is preferred to IM for the
client in labor because the onset and peak occurs more quickly and
duration of the drug is shorter.
63.
IV administration of analgesics is preferred to IM
for the client in labor because the onset and peak occurs more quickly
and duration of the drug is shorter. Which is the predictable onset with
IV administration?
A.
2 minutes
B.
5 minutes
C.
10 minutes
D.
8 minutes
Answer: B
Explanation: The predictable onset of IV administration of analgesics is
5 minutes.
64.
A 29 years old female client on delivery is
administered IV analgesics. How long can the peak be in this case?
A.
1 hour
B.
20 minutes
C.
30 minutes
D.
15 minutes
Answer: C
Explanation: The peak in this case is 30 minutes.
65.
IV administration of analgesics is preferred to IM
for the client in labor because the onset and peak occurs more quickly
and duration of the drug is shorter. Which is the peak time after
injection in this case?
A.
2 hours
B.
1-3 hours
C.
4-6 hours
D.
3-5 hours
Answer: B
Explanation: Peak duration is 1 to 3 hours after injection.
66.
During the labor, a client is prescribed Phenergan
tranquilizers that are used in this case as analgesic-potentiating
drugs. What effect do these drugs have in this case?
A.
Pain relief
B.
Decrease of maternal anxiety
C.
Decrease of nausea symptoms
D.
Stress management
Answer: B
Explanation: Tranquilizers (ataractics and/or phenothiazines) Phenergan,
Vistaril, are used in labor as analgesic-potentiating drugs to decrease
maternal anxiety.
67.
Tranquilizers (ataractics and/or phenothiazines)
Phenergan, Vistaril, are used in labor as analgesic-potentiating drugs
to decrease maternal anxiety. What narcotic drugs produce narcosis and
have a higher risk for maternal/fetal respiratory depression?
A.
Stadol
B.
Nubain
C.
Demerol
D.
Vistaril
Answer: C
Explanation: Agonist narcotic drugs (Demerol, morphine) produce narcosis
and have a higher risk for maternal/fetal respiratory depression.
68.
Antagonist drugs (Stadol, Nubain) have less
respiratory depression, but have to be used with caution by the clients.
What is the drawback of the antagonist drugs?
A.
withdrawal symptoms occur immediately
B.
produce narcosis
C.
onset and peak occurs more quickly
D.
duration of the drug is shorter
Answer: A
Explanation: Antagonist drugs (Stadol, Nubain) have less respiratory
depression but MUST be used with caution in a mother with preexisting
narcotic dependency since withdrawal symptoms occur immediately.
69.
The first sign of block effectiveness is usually
warmth and tingling of ball/big toe of foot. What block is used only for
all stages of labor?
A.
Peri/epidural
B.
Pudendal
block
C.
Subarachnoid block
D.
saddle block
Answer: A
Explanation: Pudendal block and subarachnoid (saddle block) are used only
for second stage of labor.
Peri/epidural may be used for all stages of labor.
70.
Pudendal block and subarachnoid (saddle block) are
used only for second stage of labor.
Peri/epidural may be used for all stages of labor. Which is
usually the first sign of block effectiveness?
A.
cold and tingling of ball/big toe of foot
B.
warmth and tingling of ball/big toe of foot
C.
Internal rotation
D.
Regional rotation
Answer: B
Explanation: The first sign of block effectiveness is usually warmth and
tingling of ball/big toe of foot.
71.
The first sign of block effectiveness is usually
warmth and tingling of ball/big toe of foot. When is internal rotation
harder to achieve?
A.
when the pelvic floor is relaxed by anesthesia
B.
when the pelvic floor is tensed
C.
when the uterus is relaxed by anesthesia
D.
when the uterus is tensed
Answer: A
Explanation: Internal rotation is harder to achieve when the pelvic floor
is relaxed by anesthesia resulting in persistent occiput posterior
position of fetus.
72.
Monitoring for fetal position is important because
the mother cannot tell you she has back pain, which is the cardinal sign
of persistent posterior fetal position. Why do the regional blocks,
especially epidural and caudal, often result in assisted (forceps or
vacuum) delivery?
A.
Due to the inability to push effectively in 3rd
stage.
B.
Due to the inability to push effectively in 2nd
stage.
C.
Due to the inability to push effectively in 4th
stage.
D.
Due to the inability to push effectively in 1st
stage.
Answer: B
Explanation: Regional blocks, especially epidural and caudal, often
result in assisted (forceps or vacuum) delivery due to the inability to
push effectively in 2nd stage.
73.
Internal rotation is harder to achieve when the
pelvic floor is relaxed by anesthesia resulting in persistent occiput
posterior position of fetus. What regional blocks often result in
assisted (forceps or vacuum) delivery due to the inability to push
effectively in 2nd stage?
A.
Epidermis
B.
anal sphincter
C.
rectal mucosa
D.
caudal
Answer: D
Explanation: Regional blocks, especially epidural and caudal, often
result in assisted (forceps or vacuum) delivery due to the inability to
push effectively in 2nd stage.
74.
Nerve block anesthesia (spinal or epidural) during
labor blocks motor as well as nerve fibers. What does result from
vasodilation below the level of the block?
A.
Maternal hypertension
B.
Maternal hypotension
C.
Low BP
D.
High BP
Answer: B
Explanation: Vasodilation below the level of the block results in blood
pooling in the lower extemities and maternal hypotension.
75.
Vasodilation below the level of the block results in
blood pooling in the lower extemities and maternal hypotension. Which is
the quantity of IV lactated ringers the client should 20 minutes prior
to operation be hydrated with?
A.
100-200 cc
B.
300-500 cc
C.
500-1000 cc
D.
600-800 cc
Answer: Approximately 20 minutes prior to nerve block anesthesia, the
client should be hydrated with 500 to 1000 cc of lactated ringers IV.
76.
Approximately 20 minutes prior to nerve block
anesthesia, the client should be hydrated with 500 to 1000 cc of
lactated ringers IV. What should the nurse do if hypotension occurs?
A.
Administer Stadol
B.
Administer O2 at 10 L/min by facemask
C.
Administer CO2 at 10 L/min by facemask
D.
Administer Nubain
Answer: B
Explanation: If hypotension occurs – turn the client to her side,
administer O2 at 10 L/min by facemask, and increase IV rate.
77.
Normal leukocytosis of pregnancy averages 12,000 to
15,000 mm3. What leukocytosis values are common in the first 10 to 12
post-delivery days?
A.
18,000 mm3
B.
20,000 mm3
C.
22,000 mm3
D.
25,000 mm3
Answer: D
Explanation: The first 10 to 12 days post-delivery, values of 25,000 mm3
are common.
78.
Elevated WBC and the normal elevated ESR may confuse
interpretation of acute postpartal infections. If the nurse assesses a
client’s temperature to be 101 F on the client’s second postpartum day,
what assessments should be made before notifying the physician?
A.
Check for Homan’s sign
B.
Check for postnatal bleeding
C.
Check for gastric burns
D.
Check for BP
Answer: A
Explanation: In the client’s second postpartum day, the nurse should
assess fundal height and firmness, perineal integrity, check for a
positive Homan’s sign and other symptoms, i.e., burning on urination,
pain in leg, excessive tenderness of uterus.
79.
A nurse should teach the client in the post-natal
period about the lochia changes, perineal care, breastfeeding, and sore
nipples. What is the most common cause of uterine atony in the 1st
PP day?
A.
Renal failure
B.
Kidney failure
C.
retained placental fragments
D.
blood loss
Answer: C
Explanation: After the 1st PP day, the most common cause of
uterine atony is retained placental fragments.
The nurse must check for presence of fragments in lochial tissue.
80.
Women can tolerate blood loss, even slightly
excessive blood loss, in the postpartal period due to the 40% increase
in plasma volume during pregnancy.
What is the max cc amount per day that a woman can void after the
delivery to reduce this volume increase that occurred during the
pregnancy?
A.
up to 1,000 cc/day
B.
up to 3,000 cc/day
C.
up to 2,000 cc/day
D.
up to 4,000 cc/day
Answer: B
Explanation: In postpartal period can void up to 3,000 cc/day to reduce
this volume increase that occurred during pregnancy.
81.
After the delivery, the astute nurse should check
for client’s Hgb and Hct for anemia and the blood pressure, sitting and
lying for orthostatic hypotension. What is the reason for women having
syncopal spell on the first ambulation after delivery?
A.
linea nigra changes
B.
ovasomotor changes
C.
hormonal changes
D.
irritant vulvitis
Answer: B
Explanation: Women often have a syncopal spell (faint) on the first
ambulation after delivery (usually related to ovasomotor changes,
orthostatic hypotension).
82.
Women often have a syncopal spell (faint) on the
first ambulation after delivery (usually related t ovasomotor changes,
orthostatic hypotension).
What do the Kegel post-natal exercises help at?
A.
Improve mobility
B.
Improve urine retention
C.
Improve blood circulation
D.
Speed up the healing process of the postpartum blues
Answer: B
Explanation: Kegel exercises: increase integrity of introitus and improve
urine retention. Teach
client to alternate contraction and relaxation of the pubococcygeal
muscles.
83.
Postpartum blues” are usually normal, especially 5
to 7 days after delivery. In what case is RhoGAM given to a mother after
delivery?
A.
If mother is Rh-positive
B.
If mother is Rh-negative
C.
If the mother has a positive Coombs
D.
If the mother delivers a Rh-negative fetus
Answer: B
Explanation: Remember RhoGAM is given to a Rh-negative mother who
delivers a Rh-positive fetus and has a negative direct Coombs.
If the mother has a positive Coombs, there is no need to give
RhoGAM since the mother is already sensitized.
84.
Regardless of who performs the physical assessment,
the nurse must know normal versus abnormal variations of the newborn.
What is the difference between caput succedaneum and cephalhematoma?
A.
cephalhematoma crosses suture lines and is usually
present at birth
B.
cephalhematoma does NOT cross suture lines and
manifests a few hours after birth
C.
cephalhematoma: edema under the scalp
D.
caput succedaneum: blood under the periosteum
Answer: B
Explanation: It is difficult to differentiate between caput succedaneum
(edema under the scalp) and cephalhematoma (blood under the periosteum).
The caput crosses suture lines and is usually present at birth,
while the cephalhematoma does NOT cross suture lines and manifests a few
hours after birth.
85.
The caput crosses suture lines and is usually
present at birth, while the cephalhematoma does NOT cross suture lines
and manifests a few hours after birth.
What is the danger of cephalhematoma increased by?
A.
hypobilirubinemia
B.
hyperbilirubinemia
C.
hypocalcemia
D.
hypercalcemia
Answer: B
Explanation: The danger of cephalhematoma is increased by
hyperbilirubinemia due to excess RBC breakdown.
86.
Hyperbilirubinemia reflexes are transient, and, as
such, disappear usually within the first year of life.
What does the prolonged presence of these reflexes indicate in
pediatric clients?
A.
Pulse oximetry
B.
CNS defects
C.
heart defects
D.
Defects of neuronal migration
Answer: B
Explanation: In the pediatric client, prolonged presence of these
reflexes can indicate CNS defects.
87.
The umbilical cord should always be checked at
birth. What should the
umbilical cord contain in a newborn?
A.
3 vessels, 2 veins which carry oxygenated blood to
the fetus and 1 artery which carries unoxygenated blood back to the
placenta
B.
4 vessels, 2 veins which carry oxygenated blood to
the fetus and 2 arteries which carry unoxygenated blood back to the
placenta
C.
3 vessels, 1 vein which carries oxygenated blood to
the fetus and 2 arteries which carry unoxygenated blood back to the
placenta
D.
3 vessels, 1 artery which carries oxygenated blood
to the fetus and 2 veins which carry unoxygenated blood back to the
placenta
Answer: C
Explanation: It should contain 3 vessels, 1 vein which carries oxygenated
blood to the fetus and 2 arteries which carry unoxygenated blood back to
the placenta. This is the
opposite of normal circulation in the adult.
88.
The umbilical cord in a newborn should contain 3
vessels, 1 vein which carries oxygenated blood to the fetus and 2
arteries which carry unoxygenated blood back to the placenta.
What do cord abnormalities usually indicate?
A.
Neurologic anomalies
B.
renal anomalies
C.
Congenital vertebral anomaly
D.
Chromosome anomaly
Answer: B
Explanation: Cord abnormalities usually indicate cardiovascular or renal
anomalies.
89.
Cord abnormalities usually indicate cardiovascular
or renal anomalies. What happens if fetal structures of foramen ovale,
ductus arteriosus and ductus venosus do not close postnatal?
A.
cardiac and pulmonary compromise
B.
renal compromise
C.
gastro-intestinal compromise
D.
neurological compromise
Answer: A
Explanation: Postnatally, the fetal structures of foramen ovale, ductus
arteriosus and ductus venosus should close.
If they do not, cardiac and pulmonary compromise will develop.
90.
If the structures of foramen ovale, ductus
arteriosus and ductus venosus don’t close postnatally, cardiac and
pulmonary compromise will develop. What should be suctioned by the nurse
firstly?
A.
Nose
B.
Moth
C.
Lungs
D.
Kidney
Answer: B
Explanation: Suctioning the mouth first and then the nose.
Stimulating the nares can initiate inspiration which could cause
aspiration of mucus in oral pharynx.
91.
The use of brown fat (special fat deposits fetus
puts on in last trimester which are important to thermoregulation) for
energy, can result in ketoacidosis and possible shock in a newborn. What
does hypothermia lead to?
A.
depletion of calcium
B.
depletion of glucose
C.
depletion of iron
D.
depletion of proteins
Answer: B
Explanation: HYPOTHERMIA (heat loss) leads to depletion of glucose and,
therefore, the use of brown fat (special fat deposits fetus puts on in
last trimester which are important to thermoregulation) for energy,
resulting in ketoacidosis and possible shock.
92.
Physiologic jaundice is the normal inability of the
immature liver to keep up with normal RBC destruction. When does
jaundice occur in newborns?
A.
5-6 day of life
B.
2-3 day of life
C.
7-8 day of life
D.
9-10 day of life
Answer: B
Explanation: Physiologic jaundice (normal inability of the immature liver
to keep up with normal RBC destruction) occurs at 2 to 3 days of life.
93.
Physiologic jaundice (normal inability of the
immature liver to keep up with normal RBC destruction) occurs at 2 to 3
days of life. When does jaundice become pathologic?
A.
When it occurs before 24 hours or persists beyond 7
days
B.
When it occurs before 14 hours or persists beyond 8
days
C.
When it occurs before 12 hours or persists beyond 3
days
D.
When it occurs before 10 hours or persists beyond 2
days
Answer: A
Explanation: Physiologic jaundice (normal inability of the immature liver
to keep up with normal RBC destruction) occurs at 2 to 3 days of life.
If it occurs before 24 hours or persists beyond 7 days, it
becomes pathologic.
94.
Physiologic jaundice which occurs 2 to 3 days after
birth due to the liver’s inability to keep up with RBC destruction. Who
is the culprit in this case?
A.
conjugated bilirubin
B.
unconjugated bilirubin
C.
unconjugated penile
D.
conjugated penile
Answer: B
Explanation: Typically, NCLEX-RN questions ask about normal problem of
physiologic jaundice which occurs 2 to 3 days after birth due to the
liver’s inability to keep up with RBC destruction and bind bilirubin.
Remember, unconjugated bilirubin is the culprit.
95.
A nurse is caring for a newborn baby and the feeding
hour arrived. In what case shouldn’t the nurse feed him and inform the
physician and anticipate gavage feedings in order to prevent further
energy utilization and possible aspiration?
A.
when the respiratory rate is over 50
B.
when the respiratory rate is over 40
C.
when the respiratory rate is over 60
D.
when the respiratory rate is over 30
Answer: Do not feed a newborn when the respiratory rate is over 60.
Inform the physician and anticipate gavage feedings in order to
prevent further energy utilization and possible aspiration.
96.
A 7 lb. 8 oz. baby would need 50 calories X 7 lbs =
350 calories plus 25 calories (1/2 lb. or 8 oz.) = 375 calories per day.
Taking into consideration that most infant formulas contain 20
calories/ounce, how many ounces of formula are needed per day?
A.
18.75
B.
14.75
C.
13.75
D.
16.75
Answer: A
Explanation: Dividing 375 by 20 = 18.75 ounces of formula needed per day
for a 7 lb. 8 oz. baby.
97.
A nurse caring for a 7 lb. 8 oz. baby feeds him with
18.75 ounces of infant formula needed per day. If every infant formula
contains 20 calories/ounce, which is the total amount of calories a baby
needs per day?
A.
175 calories per day
B.
375 calories per day
C.
575 calories per day
D.
275 calories per day
Answer: B
Explanation: A 7 lb. 8 oz. baby would need 50 calories X 7 lbs = 350
calories plus 25 calories (1/2 lb. or 8 oz.) = 375 calories per day.
Most infant formulas contain 20 calories/ounce.
Dividing 375 by 20 = 18.75 ounces of formula needed per day.
98.
A nurse should teach newbie parents to take both
axillary and rectally temperature of the child. How long should the
thermometer be hold in place if it is rectally placed?
A.
2 minutes
B.
3 minutes
C.
4 minutes
D.
5 minutes
Answer: D
Explanation: Rectal temperature: the thermometer should be used with
BLUNT end. Insert
thermometer ¼ to ½ inch and hold in place for 5 minutes.
Hold feet and legs firmly.
99.
A client with prior traumatic delivery and history
of D&C may experience miscarriage or preterm. What is the most common
cause of miscarriages?
A.
Incompetent cervix
B.
Incompetent pelvis
C.
Incompetent uterus
D.
Incompetent vagina
Answer: A
Explanation: Clients with prior traumatic delivery, history of D&C,
multiple abortions (spontaneous or induced), or daughters of DES mothers
may experience miscarriage or preterm labor related to INCOMPETENT
CERVIX. The cervix may be
surgically repaired prior to pregnancy, or DURING gestation.
100.
A woman of childbearing age presents at an emergency
room with unilateral and bilateral abdominal pain. What should the nurse
correctly suspect in this case?
A.
Appendicitis
B.
ectopic pregnancy
C.
entopic pregnancy
D.
etiopic pregnancy
Answer: B
Explanation: Suspect ectopic pregnancy in any woman of childbearing age
who presents at an emergency room, clinic, or office with unilateral or
bilateral abdominal pain.
Most are misdiagnosed with appendicitis.
101.
A client who is 32 weeks gestation is experiencing
dark, red vaginal bleeding and the nurse determines the FHR to be 100
bpm and her abdomen is rigid and boardlike. What action should the nurse
take first?
A.
Abdominal manipulation
B.
vaginal manipulation
C.
Abdominal exam
D.
Administer O2 per face mask
Answer: D
Explanation: The nurse should immediately notify the healthcare provider
and no abdominal or vaginal manipulation or exams should be done.
Administer O2 per face mask and monitor for bleeding at IV sites
and gums due to the increased risk of DIC.
102.
A client who is 32 weeks gestation has the following
symptoms: dark, red vaginal bleeding, 100 bpm FHR, rigid abdomen and
severe pain. What is the difference between abruptio placentae and
placenta previa?
A.
abruptio placentae: painless bright red bleeding
occurring in the third trimester
B.
placenta previa: painless bright red bleeding
occurring in the third trimester
C.
abruptio
placentae: occurs in the 2nd trimester
D.
placenta previa: occurs in the 2nd
trimester
Answer: B
Explanation: The nurse must use knowledge base to differentiate between
abruptio placentae (dark, red vaginal bleeding, 100 bpm FHR, rigid
abdomen and severe pain) from placenta previa (painless bright red
bleeding occurring in the third trimester).
103.
A nurse must use knowledge base to differentiate
between abruptio placentae (dark, red vaginal bleeding, 100 bpm FHR,
rigid abdomen and severe pain) from placenta previa (painless bright red
bleeding occurring in the third trimester). What assessments should be
done in case of a client suspected of abruptio placentae or placenta
previa?
A.
Monitor for bleeding at IV sites and gums due to the
increased risk of DIC
B.
abdominal or vaginal manipulation
C.
Leopold’s maneuvers
D.
internal monitoring
Answer: A
Explanation: Clients with abruptio placentae or placenta previa (actual
or suspected) should have NO abdominal or vaginal manipulation.
NO Leopold’s maneuvers.
NO vaginal exams. NO
rectal exams, enemas, or suppositories.
NO internal monitoring.
104.
A client suspected of abruptio placentae or placenta
previa should be monitorized for bleeding at IV sites and gums due to
the increased risk of DIC. What isn’t DIC related to?
A.
fetal demise
B.
infection/sepsis
C.
pregnancy-induced hypertension
D.
cervical carcinoma
Answer: D
Explanation: DIC is related to fetal demise, infection/sepsis,
pregnancy-induced hypertension (Preeclampsia) and abruptio palcentae.
Cervical carcinoma is related to Podophyllin.
105.
Podophyllin, which is usually used to treat HPV, but
is contraindicated in pregnancy because its negative effects on it. What
is Podophyllin usually related to?
A.
abruptio palcentae
B.
Preeclampsia
C.
infection/sepsis
D.
fetal death
Answer: D
Explanation: Podophyllin, which is usually used to treat HPV, is
contraindicated in pregnancy because it is associated with fetal death,
preterm labor, and cervical carcinoma.
106.
Podophyllin, which is usually used to treat HPV, is
contraindicated in pregnancy because it is associated with fetal death,
preterm labor, and cervical carcinoma. What is Toxoplasmosis usually
related to?
A.
exposure to cats
B.
Preeclampsia
C.
Hypertension
D.
fetal demise
Answer: A
Explanation: Toxoplasmosis is usually related to exposure to cats,
gardening (where cat feces may be found), or eating raw meat.
107.
All women should have their titers checked during
pregnancy. What can Rubella
cause to the fetus in the first trimester?
A.
renal failure
B.
congenital heart disease
C.
neurological retard
D.
pulmonary defects
Answer: B
Explanation: Rubella is teratogenic to the fetus during the FIRST
trimester, causing congenital heart disease and/or congenital cataracts.
All women should have their titers checked during pregnancy.
108.
All women should have their titers checked during
pregnancy. In what case should a woman receive the vaccine AFTER
delivery and be instructed not to get pregnant within 3 months?
A.
If titer’s are high
B.
If titer’s are low
C.
If congenital cataracts are present
D.
If it is risk of congenital heart disease
Answer: B
Explanation: If a women’s titer’s are low, she should receive the vaccine
AFTER delivery and be instructed not to get pregnant within 3 months.
Breastfeeding mothers may take the vaccine.
109.
Metronidazole (Flagyl) is the treatment of choice
for some vaginal infections. Why is it contraindicated for pregnant
women in the first trimester?
A.
Causes hypertension
B.
effect on the fetus
C.
causes nausea
D.
causes vomiting
Answer: B
Explanation: Although Metronidazole (Flagyl) is the treatment of choice
for some vaginal infections, its use is contraindicated in the first
trimester of pregnancy, and its use during the second trimester is
controversial. Medications
usually recommended for the non-pregnant client with STDs may be
CONTRAINDICATED for the pregnant client due to effect on the fetus.
110.
The side effects of magnesium sulfate are well known
and watched for during a pregnancy, however they still are important for
the organism. What should the serum blood levels of magnesium sulfate be
in order to prevent convulsions and reach therapeutic range?
A.
above 2 mg/dl
B.
above 4 mg/dl
C.
above 9 mg/dl
D.
above 7 mg/dl
Answer: B
Explanation: Although the toxic side effects of magnesium sulfate are
well known and watched for, it is just as important to get serum blood
levels of magnesium sulfate above 4 mg/dl in order to prevent
convulsions and reach therapeutic range.
111.
Although the toxic side effects of magnesium sulfate
are well known and watched for, it is just as important to get serum
blood levels of magnesium sulfate above 4 mg/dl in order to prevent
convulsions and reach therapeutic range. What are the toxic symptoms of
magnesium sulfate?
A.
>12 respirations/minute
B.
urine output <200 cc/4 hours
C.
absent DTRs
D.
Magnesium sulfate > 10 mg/dl
Answer: C
Explanation: A client should notify healthcare provider if any toxic
symptoms occur (<12 respirations/minute, urine output <100 cc/4 hours,
absent DTRs, Magnesium sulfate > 8 mg/dl).
112.
Although the toxic side effects of magnesium sulfate
are well known and watched for, it is just as important to get serum
blood levels of magnesium sulfate above 4 mg/dl in order to prevent
convulsions and reach therapeutic range. What is the magnesium sulfate
toxicity antidote?
A.
Ammonium phosphate, 20 ml vial of 10% solution
B.
calcium gluconate, 20 ml vial of 10% solution
C.
calcium oxide, 20 ml vial of 10% solution
D.
Yutopar
Answer: B
Explanation: When administering magnesium sulfate, always have antidote
available (calcium gluconate, 20 ml vial of 10% solution).
113.
Bete adrenergic agents such as terbutaline
(Brethine) or ritodrine (Yutopar) used to stop preterm labor.
What is the major side effect of this drug?
A.
Digitalis toxicity
B.
Tachycardia
C.
Renal failure
D.
Hypoglycemia
Answer: Tachycardia is the major side-effect of tocolytic drugs, which
are bete adrenergic agents such as terbutaline (Brethine) or ritodrine
(Yutopar) used to stop preterm labor.
114.
Brethine is used to stop preterm labor in a client.
In what instance should the client withhold taking the drug?
A.
if pulse >120 to 140
B.
if pulse <120 to 140
C.
if pulse >100 to 120
D.
if pulse <120 to 140
Answer: A nurse should teach the client to to take her pulse prior to
administration and withhold medication if pulse is not within the
prescribed parameters (usually whitheld if pulse >120 to 140).
115.
Dystocia frequently requires the use of oxytocin for
augmentation or induction of labor, but uterine tetany is a harmful
complication and careful monitoring is required. What is the desired
effect when uterine tetany is administered?
A.
contractions q4 to 5 minutes
B.
contractions q1 to 2 minutes
C.
contractions q2 to 3 minutes
D.
contractions q5 to 6 minutes
Answer: C
Explanation: The desired effect is contractions q2 to 3 minutes, with
duration of contractions no longer than 90 seconds.
116.
If tetany occurs, turn off Pitocin, turn client to a
side-lying position, and administer O2 by facemask. Which is oxytocin’s
most important side effect that can cause water intoxication?
A.
ADH
B.
ADD
C.
DAD
D.
HAD
Answer: A
Explanation: Oxytocin’s most important side effects is its antidiuretic
(ADH) effect, which can cause water intoxification.
117.
Oxytocin’s most important side effects is its
antidiuretic (ADH) effect, which can cause water intoxification.
What can decrease risk of water intoxification?
A.
IV fluids containing sulfate
B.
IV fluids containing chloride
C.
IV fluids containing electrolytes
D.
IV fluids containing potassium
Answer: C
Explanation: Using IV fluids containing electrolytes decreases the risk
of water intoxification.
118.
The uterus is most sensitive to becoming tetanic at
the beginning of infusion.
How long should the contraction of a client be for preventing fetal
hypoxia?
A.
30 sec
B.
40 sec
C.
60 sec
D.
90 sec
Answer: D
Explanation: The client must ALWAYS be attended and contractions
monitored. Contractions
should last NO longer than 90 seconds to prevent fetal hypoxia.
119.
A client with previous uterine scars is prone to
uterine rupture especially if oxytocin or forceps are used. When should
a nurse suspect a uterine rupture?
A.
When the client complains of a sharp headache
accompanied by nausea
B.
When the client complains of a sharp pain
accompanied by the abrupt cessation of contractions
C.
When the client complains of diarrhea accompanied by
vomiting
D.
When the client shows signs of amnesia accompanied
by irritability
Answer: B
Explanation: Women with previous uterine scars are prone to uterine
rupture especially if oxytocin or forceps are used.
If a woman complains of a sharp pain accompanied by the abrupt
cessation of contractions, suspect uterine rupture, a MEDICAL EMERGENCY.
Immediate surgical delivery is indicated to save the fetus and
the mother.
120.
Antihypertensive drugs are used in a preeclamptic
client only rarely. In what case are these drugs administered to a
client?
A.
If diastolic blood pressure is over 11 mmHg
B.
If diastolic blood pressure is over 110 mmHg
C.
If diastolic blood pressure is over 81 mmHg
D.
diastolic blood pressure over 91 mmHg
Answer: B
Explanation: Rarely are antihypertensive drugs used in the preeclamptic
client. They are given only
in the event of diastolic blood pressure over 110 mmHg. (CVA danger).
121.
Antihypertensive drugs are used in the preeclamptic
client only in the event of diastolic blood pressure over 110 mmHg. (CVA
danger). What are the drugs of choice in this case?
A.
Hydralazine HCL (Apresoline)
B.
Sucralfate
C.
Doxazosin
D.
Gentamicin
Answer: A
Explanation: Rarely are antihypertensive drugs used in the preeclamptic
client. They are given only
in the event of diastolic blood pressure over 110 mmHg. (CVA danger).
Drug of choice is Hydralazine HCL (Apresoline).
122.
Delivery is often described as the “cure” for
preeclampsia. How many hours can the client convulse after delivery?
A.
up to 18 hours
B.
up to 48 hours
C.
up to 24 hours
D.
up to 62 hours
Answer: B
Explanation: Altough delivery is often described as the “cure” for
preeclampsia, the client can convulse up to 48 hours after delivery.
123.
Delivery is often described as the “cure” for
preeclampsia, the client can convulse up to 48 hours after delivery.
What is the main nursing care goal for a client with preeclampsia?
A.
maintain kidney infusion perfusion and prevent
seizures
B.
maintain uteroplacental perfusion and prevent
seizures
C.
prevent renal failure
D.
prevent digitalis toxicity
Answer: B
Explanation: The major goal of nursing care for a client with
preeclampsia is to maintain uteroplacental perfusion and prevent
seizures.
124.
The major goal of nursing care for a client with
preeclampsia is to maintain uteroplacental perfusion and prevent
seizures. What medications should be administered in a client with
preeclampsia?
A.
magnesium chloride
B.
magnesium sulfate
C.
ammonium chloride
D.
ammonium sulfate
Answer: B
Explanation: Preeclampsia requires the administration of magnesium
sulfate.
125.
The major goal of nursing care for a client with
preeclampsia is to maintain uteroplacental perfusion and prevent
seizures. When should the
administering of magnesium sulfate be withheld?
A.
If respirations <15/minute, absence of DTRs, and
urine output <50 ml/hour.
B.
If respirations <15/minute, presence of DTRs, and
urine output <50 ml/hour.
C.
If respirations <12/minute, absence of DTRs, and
urine output <30 ml/hour.
D.
If respirations <12/minute, presence of DTRs, and
urine output <30 ml/hour.
Answer: C
Explanation: Withhold administration of magnesium sulfate if signs of
toxicity exist: respirations <12/minute, absence of DTRs, and urine
output <30 ml/hour.
126.
A nurse is caring for a female client during the
labor. What should focus on the nursing care, if the client has a
cardiac disease?
A.
maintenance of vaginal perfusion
B.
maintenance of uterine perfusion
C.
maintenance of uterine infusion
D.
maintenance of vaginal infusion
Answer: B
Explanation: Nursing care during labor and delivery for the client with
cardiac disease is focused on prevention of cardiac embarrassment,
maintenance of uterine perfusion, and alleviation of anxiety.
127.
A female client is experiencing preterm labor, but
the use of beta-adrenergic agents such as terbutaline (Brethine) and
ritodrine HCL (Yutopar) are contraindicated for her. What side effect
can this medication have on a client with cardiac disease?
A.
chance of myocardial anemia
B.
chance of myocardial ischemia
C.
chance of myocardial leukemia
D.
chance of hypertension
Answer: B
Explanation: Should these clients experience preterm labor, the use of
beta-adrenergic agents such as terbutaline (Brethine) and ritodrine HCL
(Yutopar) are contraindicated due to the chance of myocardial ischemia.
128.
Normal dieresis usually occurs in the postpartum
period and can pose serious problems to the new mother with cardiac
disease. What is the reason of due to which can occur severe
complications?
A.
hypotension
B.
the increased cardiac output
C.
risk of cardiac failure
D.
chance of myocardial ischemia
Answer: B
Explanation: Normal diuresis, which occurs in the postpartum period, can
pose serious problems to the new mother with cardiac disease because of
the increased cardiac output.
129.
Coumadin may NOT be taken during pregnancy due to
its ability to cross the placenta and affect the fetus. What is the drug
of choice during the pregnancy in this case?
A.
Ximelagatran
B.
Heparin
C.
Digoxin
D.
Amiodarone
Answer: B
Explanation: Coumadin may NOT be taken during pregnancy due to its
ability to cross the placenta and affect the fetus.
HEPARIN is the drug of choice; it does NOT cross the placental
membrane.
130.
Pregnancy and non-pregnancy risk factors for
hyperemesis gravidarum include first pregnancy, multiple fetuses, age
under 24, and history of this condition in other pregnancies, obesity,
and high fat diets. What have recent researches found that it is another
possible causative factor in hyperemesis?
A.
Gastric Helicobacters
B.
Helicobacter pylori
C.
Intestinal helicobacters – Elsevier
D.
Campylobacters
Answer: B
Explanation: Recent research has found that Helicobacter pylori, (the
bacterium that causes stomach ulcers) infection is another possible
causative factor in hyperemesis.
131.
A female client is in a severe case of hyperemesis
gravidarum. What may the healthcare provider prescribe for retrieving
nausea?
A.
abatacept
B.
antihistamines
C.
acebutolol
D.
Anturane (sulfinpyrazone)
Answer: B
Explanation: In severe cases of hyperemesis gravidarum, the healthcare
provider may prescribe antihistamines, vitamin B6, or phenothiazines to
relieve nausea.
132.
In severe cases of hyperemesis gravidarum, the
healthcare provider may prescribe antihistamines, vitamin B6, or
phenothiazines to relieve nausea. What should also be prescribed for
increasing the rate the stomach moves food into the intestines, or
antacids to absorb stomach acid and help prevent acid reflux?
A.
Macrodantin (nitrofurantoin)
B.
metoclopramide (Reglan)
C.
magnesium salicylate-oral
D.
Mandelamine (methenamine-oral)
Answer: B
Explanation: The provider also prescribe metoclopramide (Reglan) to
increase the rate the stomach moves food into the intestines, or
antacids to absorb stomach acid and help prevent acid reflux.
133.
In severe cases of hyperemesis gravidarum, the
healthcare provider may prescribe antihistamines, vitamin B6, or
phenothiazines to relieve nausea. What are usually women suffering from
hyperemesis gravidarum deficient of?
A.
in thiamin, riboflavin, vitamin B6, and vitamin A
B.
in thiamin, ammonium chlorides, vitamin B12, vitamin
K
C.
in tetamin, riboflavin, vitamin B1, vitamin C
D.
in thiamin, potassium, vitamin B2, vitamin B1
Answer: A
Explanation: Women who suffer from hyperemesis gravidarum are often
deficient in thiamin, riboflavin, vitamin B6, vitamin A, and
retinol-binding proteins.
134.
For glucose screening, a client is giving 50 gm of
glucose and blood is drawn after one hour. In what case is the GTT test
done?
A.
the blood glucose is greater than 145 mg/dl
B.
the blood glucose is greater than 135 mg/dl
C.
the blood glucose is greater than 153 mg/dl
D.
the blood glucose is greater than 195 mg/dl
Answer: B
Explanation: If the blood glucose is greater than 135 mg/dl, the na
three-hour glucose tolerance test (GTT) is done.
135.
High incidence of fetal anomalies occurs in pregnant
diabetic women. Therefore,
fetal surveillance is very important. What medication is not taken
during the pregnancy due to potential teratogenic effects on fetus?
A.
Oral hypoglycemic
B.
magaldrate-oral
C.
mao inhibitors-oral
D.
maprotiline-oral
Answer: A
Explanation: Oral hypoglycemics are not taken in pregnancy due to
potential teratogenic effects on fetus.
Insulin is used for therapeutic management.
136.
A woman is admitted in labor with diagnosis of
diabetes mellitus. What diseases or anomalies is she more prone to?
A.
Hypotension, cardiac failure and infection
B.
hyperemesis gravidarum and cardiac failure
C.
Preeclampsia, hemorrhage and infection
D.
Hyperemesis, hemorrhage and hyperemesis gravidarum
Answer: C
Explanation: A diabetic women is more prone to preeclampsia, hemorrhage
and infection.
137.
Delivery for diabetic persons is often scheduled
between 37 to 38 weeks gestation to avoid the end of the 3rd
trimester of pregnancy because this is a VERY difficult time to maintain
diabetic control. Why it is useful to discontinue long-acting insulin
administration on the day before the delivery is planned?
A.
Insulin requirements are higher in labor and drop
precipitously after delivery.
B.
Insulin can endanger the life of the fetus
C.
Insulin requirements are less in labor and drop
precipitously after delivery.
D.
Insulin can cause cardiac failure for the fetus
Answer: C
Explanation: It is useful to discontinue long-acting insulin
administration on the day before the delivery is planned since insulin
requirements are less in labor and drop precipitously after delivery.
138.
The intrauterine device may be associated with an
increased risk of infection in vulnerable women. What can
estrogen-containing birth controlling pills cause?
A.
nausea
B.
resistance to insulin
C.
amnesia
D.
digitalis toxicity
Answer: B
Explanation: Estrogen-containing birth control pills affect glucose
metabolism by increasing resistance to insulin.
139.
A baby delivered abdominally misses out on the
vaginal squeeze and is born with more fluid in the lungs. What is the
newborn predisposed to?
A.
TTN
B.
TNN
C.
MXN
D.
RNN
Answer: A
Explanation: Babies delivered abdominally miss out on the vaginal squeeze
and are born with more fluid in the lungs, predisposing the newborn to
transient tachypnea (TTN) and respiratory distress.
140.
The classical, vertical incision on the uterus may
involve part of the fundus, resulting in more postoperative pain,
bleeding, and an increased chance of uterine rupture. What does the
low-transverse uterine incision usually results in?
A.
less bleeding
B.
more bleeding
C.
amnesia
D.
hemorrhage
Answer: A
Explanation: The preferable low-transverse uterine incision usually
results in less postoperative pain, less bleeding, and less incidents of
ruptured uterus.
141.
Due to the exploration and cleansing of the uterus
just after delivery of the placenta, the amount of lochia may be scant
in the recovery room.
What can pooling in the vagina and uterus while on bedrest result in
when the client firstly ambulates?
A.
hemorrhage
B.
blood running down the client’s leg
C.
pass out
D.
inexplicable back pain
Answer: B
Explanation: Pooling in the vagina and uterus while on bedrest may result
in blood running down the client’s leg when she first ambulates.
142.
Cesarean birth clients have the same lochial
changes, placental site healing, and aseptic needs as do vaginal birth
clients. What does laparotomy of any kind, including cesarean birth,
predisposes the client to?
A.
Postoperative trauma
B.
postoperative paralytic ileus
C.
postoperative mood changes
D.
postoperative hemorrhage
Answer: B
Explanation: Laparotomy of any kind, including cesarean birth,
predisposes the client to postoperative paralytic ileus.
143.
When the bowel is manipulated in surgery, it ceases
preistalsis, which may persist.
What symptoms can occur in this case?
A.
Diarrhea
B.
Obstipation
C.
Headache
D.
Depression
Answer: B
Explanation: Symptoms include: absent bowel sounds, abdominal distention,
tympany on percussion, nausea and vomiting, and of course, obstipation
(intractible constipation).
Early ambulation is an effective nursing intervention.
144.
A client has a postpartum infection and is in high
risk of depression. What does postpartum infection imply?
A.
Isolation from newborn
B.
Back pain
C.
Nausea
D.
Vomiting
Answer: A
Explanation: Nurse must be especially supportive of postpartum client
with infection because it usually implies isolation from newborn until
organism is identified and treatment begun.
145.
A client suffers of postpartum UTI. What is the most
common iatrogenic cause of UTI?
A.
hematuria
B.
urinary catheterization
C.
urinary failure
D.
kidney failure
Answer: B
Explanation: Most common iatrogenic cause of UTI is urinary
catheterization.
146.
Urinary catheterization is one of the most common
causes of UTI. What is usually administered to clients with
pyelonephritis?
A.
IV antibiotic
B.
Extra venous antibiotic
C.
Analgesics
D.
Tranquilizers
Answer: A
Explanation: Most common iatrogenic cause of UTI is urinary
catheterization. Encourage
clients to void frequently and not ignore the urge.
IV antibiotic are usually administered to clients with
pyelonephritis.
147.
A female client experiences postpartum infections.
What increases the risk of the woman to have postpartum infections?
A.
Hyperglycemia
B.
Gastric defects
C.
Cardiac problems
D.
experienced problems during pregnancy
Answer: D
Explanation: Remember, the risk of postpartum infections increases for
clients who experienced problems during pregnancy (e.g., anemia,
diabetes) or experienced trauma during labor and delivery.
148.
A client is taking anticoagulants. What can she
expect during the menstrual periods?
A.
light menstrual periods
B.
heavy menstrual periods
C.
pain during menstrual periods
D.
irregular menstrual periods
Answer: B
Explanation: Clients taking anticoagulants can usually expect to have
heavy menstrual periods.
149.
A mother who is on antibiotic therapy after delivery
asks whether she can breastfeed her son or not. In what case shouldn’t
the woman breastfeed him?
A.
If the neonate has light weight
B.
If the neonate is at risk for sepsis by maternal
contact
C.
If the neonate has hypocalcaemia
D.
If the neonate has glucose insufficiency
Answer: B
Explanation: In most cases, a mother who is on antibiotic therapy can
continue to breastfeed unless the healthcare provider thinks the neonate
is at risk for sepsis by maternal contact.
150.
Many times mastitis can be confused with a blocked
milk sinus, which is treated by nursing closer to the lump and by
rotating the baby on the breast. When is breastfeeding contraindicating
in this case?
A.
If pus is in the breast milk
B.
If sepsis is in the breast milk
C.
If mother is anemic
D.
If mother has hyperglycemia
Answer: A
Explanation: Breastfeeding is not contraindicated for women with
mastitis, unless pus is in the breast milk, or the antibiotic of choice
is harmful to the infant. If
either of these occurs, milk production can still be fostered by manual
expression.
151.
During medical emergencies such as bleeding
episodes, clients need calm, direct explanations and assurance that all
is being done that can be done. Which is not a risk factor for
hemorrhage?
A.
Dystocia
B.
prolonged labor
C.
hyperglycemia
D.
distended uterus
Answer: C
Explanation: Risk factors for hemorrhage include: dystocia, prolonged
labor, over distended uterus, abruptio placentae, and infection.
152.
A nurse is detected postpartum hemorrhage in a 22
years old client. What immediate nursing actions should be taken when a
postpartum hemorrhage is detected?
A.
Perform back massage
B.
Administer oxytocin infusion
C.
Administer Tryptophan
D.
Administer Tolbutamide
Answer: B
Explanation: when a postpartum hemorrhage is detected, the nurse should
perform fundal massage, count pads to estimate blood loss, assess and
record vital signs, increase IV fluids and administer oxytocin infusion
as prescribed.
153.
A nurse is detected postpartum hemorrhage in a 22
years old client. In what case should the nurse notify the healthcare
provider?
A.
if the fundus become firm with massage
B.
if the fundus does not become firm with massage
C.
if increase of IV fluids is needed
D.
if oxytocin administering is needed
Answer: B
Explanation: The nurse should notify the healthcare provider if the
fundus does not become firm with massage.
154.
To avoid metabolic problems brought on by cold
stress, the first step and number one priority, in management of the
newborn is to prevent loss of body heat, followed by ABCs. What is
defined as “Jitteriness”?
A.
clinical manifestation of hyperglycemia and
hypercalcemia
B.
clinical manifestation of hypoglycemia and
hypocalcemia
C.
clinical manifestation of hypocalaemia and
hypocalcemia
D.
clinical manifestation of hyperglycemia and
hypocalcemia
Answer: B
Explanation: “Jitteriness” is a clinical manifestation of hypoglycemia
and hypocalcemia. Laboratory
analysis is indicated to differentiate between two etiologies.
155.
Newborn frequently have metabolic problems brought
on by cold stress. What is the first step and number one priority, in
management of the newborn?
A.
ABCs followed by IV fluids administration
B.
prevent loss of body heat, followed by ABCs
C.
prevent cardiac failure
D.
ABCs followed by pain assessment
Answer: B
Explanation: To avoid metabolic problems brought on by cold stress, the
first step and number one priority, in management of the newborn is to
prevent loss of body heat, followed by ABCs.
156.
Neonates produce heat by non-shivering
thermogenesis, by burning brown fat. What is the newborn easily
developing acidosis from?
A.
hypothermia
B.
hypoxia
C.
hyperglycemia
D.
hypocalcemia
Answer: B
Explanation: Neonates produce heat by non-shivering thermogenesis, by
burning brown fat. The
neonate is easily stressed by hypothermia and develops acidosis from
hypoxia.
157.
The nurse should prevent chilling in a newborn by
keeping him under radiant warmer or in isolette. Which are the first
signs exhibited if cold?
A.
prolonged acrocyanosis
B.
purple skin
C.
pale lips
D.
tremor
Answer: A
Explanation: If cold, the first signs exhibited are prolonged
acrocyanosis, skin mottling, tachycardia, and tachypnea.
158.
If cold, the first signs exhibited are prolonged
acrocyanosis, skin mottling, tachycardia, and tachypnea. What can rapid
warming may produce in a newborn?
A.
Cardiac failure
B.
Renal failure
C.
Apnea
D.
Coma
Answer: C
Explanation: If cold stressed, warm slowly over 2 to 4 hours since rapid
warming may produce apnea.
159.
A newborn has the score on the Silverman-Anderson
index of Respiratory Distress of ten. What is this score indicating
about the respiratory status of the newborn?
A.
Perfect functioning respiratory system
B.
severe respiratory distress
C.
average functioning respiratory system
D.
kidney failure
Answer: B
Explanation: The lower the score on the Silverman-Anderson index of
Respiratory Distress, the better the respiratory status of the neonate.
A score of 10 indicates that a newborn is in severe respiratory
distress.
160.
A nurse should watch the newborn Hct in case that
complication occurs. What newborns are difficult to oxygenate?
A.
Anemic newborns
B.
Newborns with hyperglycemia
C.
Newborns with hypocalcemia
D.
Newborns with hyperkalemia
Answer: A
Explanation: It is difficult to oxygenate either an anemic newborn (lack
of oxygen-carrying capacity) or a newborn with polycythemia (Hct >80%,
thich, sluggish circulation).
161.
It is difficult to oxygenate either an anemic
newborn (lack of oxygen-carrying capacity) or a newborn with
polycythemia. How should the PO2 be maintained?
A.
50 to 90 mmHg
B.
40 to 80 mmHg
C.
30 to 60 mmHg
D.
20 to 50 mmHg
Answer: A
Explanation: The PO2 should be maintained between 50 to 90 mmHg.
162.
In a newborn, a nurse should maintain the PO2
between 50 to 90 mmHg. What does PO2 <50 signify?
A.
oxygen toxicity problems
B.
hypoxia
C.
anemia
D.
polycythemia
Answer: B
Explanation: PO2 <50 signifies hypoxia.
163.
In a
newborn, a nurse should maintain the PO2 between 50 to 90 mmHg. What
does PO2 > 90 signify?
A.
oxygen toxicity problems
B.
hypoxia
C.
anemia
D.
polycythemia
Answer: A
Explanation: PO2 > 90 signifies oxygen toxicity problems.
164.
Antibiotic dosage is based on the neonate’s weight
in kilograms. By what can
sepsis be indicated?
A.
hypothermia
B.
both a temperature increase and a temperature
decrease
C.
hypoglycemia
D.
hyperglycemia
Answer: B
Explanation: Sepsis can be indicated by both a temperature increase and
temperature decrease.
165.
A newborn is diagnosed with neonatal infection and
is under drug therapy. What type of drugs can be used for treating this
infection?
A.
Topicort
B.
ototoxic and nephrotoxic
C.
Triazolam
D.
Trihex
Answer: B
Explanation: Drugs used to treat neonatal infections can be ototoxic and
nephrotoxic. Close
monitoring of therapeutic levels and observation for side effects are
required.
166.
Renal immaturity in the preterm infant makes the
monitoring of IV fluid administration and drug therapy crucial. What is
it crucial for the nurse to monitor in this case?
A.
Ammonium chloride levels
B.
BUN and creatinine levels
C.
Glucose level
D.
Calcium level
Answer: B
Explanation: Closely monitor BUN and creatinine levels when administering
the “mycin” antibiotics to treat infections in the neonate.
167.
In a newborn, the tube passes into trachea. What
sounds will he be able to make in this case?
A.
Cry
B.
Yell
C.
become cyanotic
D.
laugh
Answer: C
Explanation: If tube passes into trachea, newborn can make NO noise,
i.e., no crying. Newborn may
gag, cough, or become cyanotic.
168.
In order to asses for skin jaundice, a nurse has to
apply with thumb over bony prominences to blanch skin. How will the area
look quickly after removing thumb?
A.
Rosy
B.
Pale white
C.
Yellow
D.
Pale purple
Answer: C
Explanation: After removing thumb, area will look yellow before normal
skin color reappears.
169.
In white skinned children, after removing the thumb
from skin for assessing for skin jaundice, the skin area looks yellow.
Knowing which areas are best for assessment in white skin colour cases,
where can be skin jaundice best observed in dark skinned children?
A.
the nose
B.
conjunctival sac and oral mucosa
C.
forehead
D.
sternum
Answer: B
Explanation: The best areas for assessment in white skinned children are
the nose, forehead, and sternum.
In dark-skinned infants, observe conjunctival sac and oral
mucosa.
170.
Lab tests measure total and direct (conjugated,
excretable, non-fat soluble) bilirubin levels.
Which bilirubin is known to be dangerous?
A.
Conjugated non-fat soluble
B.
Conjugated excretable
C.
unconjugated fat-soluble
D.
unconjugated excretable
Answer: C
Explanation: The dangerous bilirubin is the unconjugated, indirect
(fat-soluble), which is measured by subtracting the direct from the
total bilirubin.
171.
The preterm infant is at risk for fluid and
electrolyte imbalances due to increased body surface area from extended
body positioning and larger body area in related to body weight. What is
the risk of phototherapy treatment for hyperbilirubinemia (level > 12
mg/dl)?
A.
increases the risk for cardiac defects
B.
increases the risk for renal failure
C.
increases the risk for respiratory failure
D.
increases the risk for dehydration
Answer: D
Explanation: Phototherapy treatment for hyperbilirubinemia (level > 12
mg/dl) increases the risk for dehydration.
172.
A client with paranoid schizophrenia on the
psychiatric unit complains of chest pain. What should the nurse do in
this case?
A.
Politely say that now is time for solving other
types of problems
B.
Send him to a physical nurse
C.
look at the perineal area
D.
take his/her blood pressure
Answer: C
Explanation: If a client with paranoid schizophrenia on the psychiatric
unit complains of chest pain take his/her blood pressure. The nurse
should assess in a “psychiatric situation” when the client describes a
physical problem.
173.
An OB client who has delivered a dead fetus
complains of perineal pain on the psychiatric unit. What action should
the nurse take in this case?
A.
Politely say that now is time for solving other
types of problems
B.
Send him to a physical nurse
C.
look at the perineal area
D.
take his/her blood pressure
Answer: C
Explanation: If the OB client complains who has delivered a dead fetus
complains of perineal pain, the nurse should look at the perineal area
(she may have a hematoma).
174.
Nurses are “nice” people, but they are also
therapeutic. What type of communication is sometimes more important than
verbal communication?
A.
Subjective communication
B.
nonverbal communication
C.
technical communication
D.
objective communication
Answer: B
Explanation: Remember, a nurse’s nonverbal communication may be more
important that his/her verbal communication.
175.
A client has been diagnosed with anxiety and is
under nursing care. What are the most common physiological responses to
it?
A.
increased heart rate and blood pressure
B.
urinary failure
C.
hypoglycemia
D.
hypocalcaemia
Answer: A
Explanation: Common physiological responses to anxiety include increased
heart rate and blood pressure; rapid, shallow respirations; dry mouth,
tight feeling in throat; tremors, muscle tension; anorexia; urinary
frequency; palmar sweating.
176.
A nurse is caring for a client with anxiety. Why is
it so important for the nurse to check her own level of anxiety and
remain calm before caring for the client?
A.
Anxiety is contagious and can be easily transferred
from nurse to client and from client to nurse
B.
Clients with anxiety are highly receptive of the
nurse’s mood and can be negatively influenced by it
C.
For being aware of the difference between normal
anxiety level and acute anxiety symptoms
D.
For being able to understand what the client is
going through
Answer: A
Explanation: Anxiety is very contagious and is easily transferred from
client to nurse AND from nurse to client.
FIRST, the nurse must assess his/her own level of anxiety and
remain calm.
177.
When a client described a phobia or expresses an
unreasonable fear, the nurse should acknowledge the feeling (fear) and
refrain from exposing the client to the identified fear.
What is the nurse’s task to do after trust between her and the
client has been established?
A.
Prescribe the Dark adaptometry process
B.
Prescribe the Eisoptrophobia process
C.
Prescribe the Edward B. Lewis process
D.
Prescribe desensitization process
Answer: D
Explanation: After trust is established, a desensitization process may
be prescribed.
Desensitization is the nursing intervention for phobia disorders.
178.
Compulsive acts are used in response to anxiety,
which may or may not be related to the obsession.
What should the nurse do if the client talks about his obsessive
themes?
A.
Actively listen
B.
Pretend to be uninterested
C.
Change subject
D.
End therapy session
Answer: A
Explanation: It is the nurse’s responsibility to help alleviate anxiety.
Interfering will increase anxiety.
The nurse should: actively listen to the client’s obsessive
themes.
179.
A nurse is assisting a client with postraumatic
stress disorder. What has no relevance for a nurse to do while caring
for such a client?
A.
Assess suicide risk
B.
Acknowledge effects that ritualistic acts have on
the client
C.
Assist client to develop objectivity about the event
and problem solve regarding possible means of controlling anxiety
related to the event
D.
Actively listen to client’s stories of experiences
surrounding the traumatic event
Answer: B
Explanation: For clients with postraumatic stress disorder, ritualistic
acts have no importance; they have for the clients with anxiety.
180.
When dealing with psychologically related disorders,
it is crucial for nurses to be aware of their own behavior and be open
to the client’s problems. What disorders cannot be explained medically
and they result from internal conflict?
A.
Dissociative disorders
B.
Somatoform disorders
C.
Anxiety
D.
postraumatic stress disorder
Answer: B
Explanation: Clients with Somatoform disorders have disorders that can
not be explained medically: they result from internal conflict. A nurse
should be non-judgmental in this case.
181.
The nurse’s behavior is very important while dealing
with clients having psychological disorders. Regarding what disorder
should the nurse be aware that all behavior has meaning?
A.
Dissociative disorders
B.
Somatoform disorders
C.
Anxiety
D.
postraumatic stress disorder
Answer: A
Explanation: The nurse should be aware that ALL behavior has meaning
when it comes to Dissociative disorders.
182.
A nurse that is treating a client with dissociative
disorder has to be aware that all behavior has a meaning. By what is
dissociative disorder usually accompanied by for providing protection
from pain?
A.
Sleeping disorder
B.
Decompression
C.
Amnesia
D.
Defibrillation
Answer: C
Explanation: The various types of amnesia, which accompany dissociative
disorders, provide protection from pain.
183.
Psychological may be regarded by nurses as a
challenge. In what disorder case does the client is the client
comfortable with his disorder and believes that he is right and the
world is wrong?
A.
DISSOCIATIVE DISORDERS
B.
SOMATOFORM DISORDERS
C.
ANXIETY DISORDERS
D.
PERSONALITY DISORDERS
Answer: D
Explanation:
Persons with a personality disorder are usually comfortable with their
disorder and believe that they are right and the world is wrong.
These individuals usually have very little motivation to change.
184.
Eating disorders are known to be very dangerous and
clients need the attentive eye of a nurse watching them. In what case of
disorder shouldn’t the nurse allow the clients to plan or prepare food
for unit-based activities and provide others with food and watching them
eat?
A.
Bulimia
B.
Anorexia
C.
Emetophobia
D.
Phagophobia
Answer: B
Explanation: People with Anorexia gain pleasure from providing others
with food and watching them eat.
These behaviors reinforce their perception of self-control.
Do not allow these clients to plan or prepare food for unit-based
activities.
185.
People with Bulimia often use syrup of ipecac to
induce vomiting. What can this habit lead to if therapy is not applied?
A.
CHF
B.
Renal failure
C.
Hypoglycemia
D.
Respiratory failure
Answer: A
Explanation: People with Bulimia often use syrup of ipecac to induce
vomiting which may cause cardiovascular problems such as congestive
heart failure (CHF).
186.
A client is experiencing the following symptoms:
significant change in appetite accompanied by a change in weight (gain),
fatigue and lack of energy, loss of ability to concentrate or think
clearly and hyperinsomnia. What disorder does he most probably have?
A.
Mood disorder
B.
Personality disorder
C.
Eating disorder
D.
Dissociative disorder
Answer: A
Explanation: Significant change in appetite accompanied by a change in
weight (gain), fatigue and lack of energy, loss of ability to
concentrate or think clearly and hyperinsomnia indicate a mood disorder.
187.
The nurse knows depressed clients are improving when
they begin to take an interest in their appearance or begin to perform
self-care activities, which were previously of little or no interest.
What should the nurse know if a depressed client becomes happy or even
elevated?
A.
Curing is almost complete
B.
Suspect an imminent suicide
C.
Only a mood change followed by a severe depression
D.
The client has found reason to live
Answer: B
Explanation: The nurse should suspect an imminent suicide attempt if a
depressed client becomes “better,” e.g., happy or even elated.
Be aware – a happy affect may signify that the client feels
relieved that a plan has been made and he/she is ready for the suicide
attempt.
188.
An important intervention for the depressed client
is to sit quietly with the client, but there are also antidepressant
drugs that can be helpful. Which is the side effect of the
antidepressant drugs?
A.
Sedation
B.
Drowsiness
C.
hypertensive crisis
D.
anticholinergic effects
Answer: D
Explanation: The side effects of antidepressant drugs are anticholinergic
effects, and postural hypotension.
189.
After taking the therapy drugs, a client has the
following symptoms: sedation, drowsiness. From your knowledge about the
following drug groups, which one could have these side effects?
A.
Antidepressant drugs
B.
Anti-anxiety drugs
C.
MAO inhibitors
D.
MD inhibitors
Answer: B
Explanation: The side effects of Anti-anxiety drugs are known to be
sedation, and drowsiness.
190.
A nurse should know specific problems or concerns
for drug therapy. What drugs have extrapyramidal effects on the clients?
A.
Lithium
B.
Phenothiazines
C.
Anti-anxiety drugs
D.
MAO inhibitors
Answer: B
Explanation: Phenothiazines cause extrapyramidal effects (EPS).
191.
A nurse should know specific problems or concerns
for drug therapy. In what drug therapy case should the nurse advise the
client to have dietary restrictions to prevent hypertensive crisis?
A.
Lithium
B.
Phenothiazines
C.
Anti-anxiety drugs
D.
MAO inhibitors
Answer: D
Explanation: In case of MAO inhibitors, the client should be advised to
have dietary restrictions to prevent hypertensive crisis.
192.
A nurse should monitor serum lithium levels
carefully in order not to reach toxic levels. What is the therapeutic
range for serum lithium?
A.
0.5 and 1.5 mEq/L
B.
1.5 and 2 mEq/L
C.
2.5 and 3.5 mEq/L
D.
1.5 and 2.5 mEq/L
Answer: A
Explanation: The therapeutic range is between 0.5 and 1.5 mEq/L.
the therapeutic and toxic levels are very close in reading.
Signs of toxicity are evident when lithium levels are more than
1.5 mEq/L.
193.
When caring for a maniac client, the nurse should be
prepared for for personal “put downs” and avoid arguing or becoming
defensive. What activities are appropriate for a manic client?
A.
Hydrotherapy
B.
Massage
C.
Noncompetitive physical activities, which require
the use of large muscle groups.
D.
Fishing
Answer: C
Explanation: The recommended activities for a maniac client are
noncompetitive physical activities, which require the use of large
muscle groups.
194.
When evaluating client behaviors, consider the
medications the client is receiving: exhibited behaviors may be
manifestations of schizophrenia or a drug reaction. By using the
Bleuler’s four “As” method, decide which variant is not a characteristic
for schizophrenia?
A.
Autism
B.
Affect
C.
Artisanal
D.
Association
Answer: C
Explanation: The 4 “As” related to schizophrenia are Autism (preoccupied
with self), Affect (flat), Association (loose) and Ambivalence
(difficulty making decisions).
195.
A nurse should know what defense mechanisms are used
by chemically dependent clients. Which are the most common coping styles
used by these clients?
A.
Rationalization
B.
Exteriorization
C.
Interiorization
D.
Indifference
Answer: A
Explanation: Denial and rationalization are the two most common coping
styles used – their use must be confronted so accountability for the
client’s own behavior can be developed.
196.
A nurse is
caring for a chemically dependent client since two days. What basic
needs have priority when working with chemically dependent clients?
A.
Hydration
B.
Nutrition
C.
Physical activity
D.
Habit change
Answer: B
Explanation: Nutrition is a priority.
Alcohol and drug intake has superseded the intake of food for
these clients.
197.
When caring for a chemically dependent client,
nutrition is the most important priority. What should the nurse expect
during withdrawal in an alcoholic?
A.
DT
B.
TT
C.
TD
D.
LDT
Answer: A
Explanation: In the alcoholic, delirium tremens (DT) occurs 12 to 36
hours after the last intake of alcohol.
Know the symptoms (tachycardia, tachypnea, diaphoresis, marked
tremors, hallucinations, paranoia).
In drug abuse, withdrawal symptoms are specific to the type of
drug.
198.
A nurse is caring for a 40 year old alcoholic
dependent. What medications can the nurse expect to administer to this
chemically dependent client?
A.
Triamcinolone
B.
Antabuse
C.
Triazolam
D.
Acathisia
Answer: B
Explanation: In treating alcohol withdrawal, Librium or Ativan are
commonly used. Antabuse is
often used as s deterrent to drinking alcohol.
199.
A chemically dependent client comes to the hospital
for help. What therapy type will most probably be the most effective for
him?
A.
cognitive-behavioral therapy
B.
psychoanalysis
C.
group therapy
D.
Gestalt Therapy
Answer: C
Explanation: For a chemical dependent client, group therapy is effective
as well as support groups such as Alcoholics Anonymous, Narcotics
Anonymous, etc.
200.
When caring for abused clients, it is crucial to
establish a trust relationship. What abuse victims are at high risk for
Post Traumatic Stress Disorder?
A.
Women
B.
elderly person
C.
Rape victims
D.
Children
Answer: C
Explanation: Rape victims are at high risk for Post Traumatic Stress
Disorder (PTSD). Immediate
intervention to diminish distress is vital.
The nurse should also assess for and intervene for sequellae such
as unwanted pregnancy, sexually transmitted diseases, and HIV risk.
201.
Confusion in the elderly is often “accepted” as part
of growing old. What is
probably the most common cause of the confusion?
A.
hypoglycemia
B.
dehydration
C.
trauma
D.
hypocalcemia
Answer: B
Explanation: Confusion in elderly persons may be due to dehydration with
resulting electrolyte imbalance.
202.
Providing consistent caregiver is a priority in
planning nursing care for the confused older client; change increases
anxiety and confusion. What atypical antipsychotics are indicated for
these clients?
A.
Quetiapine
B.
mood stabilizers
C.
resperidine
D.
olanzapine
Answer: B
Explanation: May also use atypical antipsychotics such as resperidine,
quetiapine, olanzapine, Clozaril is not a front-line agent due to
side-effects. May also give
mood stabilizers and antianxiety medications as indicated.
203.
Providing consistent caregiver is a priority in
planning nursing care for the confused older client because change
increases anxiety and confusion. What is the main difference between
delirium and dementia?
A.
delirium is acute, and reversible
B.
dementia is acute, and reversible
C.
delirium is gradual and permanent
D.
dementia is more aggressive
Answer: A
Explanation: The basic difference between delirium and dementia is that
delirium is acute, and reversible, whereas dementia is gradual and
permanent.
204.
Children also experience depression and can be
manifested in different ways. Out of the following variants, what option
does not relate to a child’s depression?
A.
Headaches
B.
Stomachaches
C.
somatic complaints
D.
insecurity
Answer: D
Explanation: Children also experience depression, which often presents as
headaches, stomachaches, and other somatic complaints.
Be sure to assess suicidal risks, especially in the adolescent.
205.
Older persons often complain that they cannot get to
sleep at night and do not sleep soundly even after they fall asleep.
What side effects can the sleeping pills cause in older persons?
A.
Nausea
B.
Disorientation
C.
Mood changes
D.
Irritability
Answer: B
Explanation: A common response is use of prescription sleeping pills
which can create still further problems of disorientation.
206.
Both systolic and diastolic blood pressure tends to
increase with normal aging, but the elevation of the systolic is
greater. To what does the
systolic blood pressure refer to?
A.
level of blood pressure during the contraction phase
B.
stage when the chambers of the heart are filling
with blood
C.
level of blood pressure during the expansion phase
D.
stage when the chambers of the heart are empting
with blood
Answer: A
Explanation: Systolic refers to the level of blood pressure during the
contraction phase whereas diastolic refers to the stage when the
chambers of the heart are filling with blood.
207.
Dysrhythmias in the elderly are particularly serious
since older persons cannot tolerate decreased cardiac output. What can
dysrhythmias result in for elderly persons?
A.
TIAs
B.
AITs
C.
IATs
D.
ATIs
Answer: A
Explanation: Dysrhythmias in the elderly are particularly serious since
older persons cannot tolerate decreased cardiac output, which can result
in syncope, falls, and transient ischemic attacks (TIAs).
Pulse may be rapid, slow, or irregular.
208.
Angina symptoms may be absent in the elderly or they
may be confused with GI symptoms. Which is in elderly people the major
cause of respiratory disability?
A.
Meningitis
B.
Pneumonia
C.
COPD
D.
Bronchitis
Answer: C
Explanation: COPD is the major cause of respiratory
disability in the elderly.
209.
Aging, the muscles that operate the lings lose
elasticity so that respiratory efficiency is reduced.
What changes do the aging factors lead to in the digestive
system?
A.
Chronic diarrhea
B.
Chronic constipation
C.
CDDA
D.
CACC
Answer: B
Explanation: Aging changes that contribute to chronic constipation
because the number of enzymes in the small intestine is reduced and
simple sugars are absorbed more slowly, resulting in decreased
efficiency of the digestive process.
210.
Aging has many effects on the normal physical
functioning of the human body. Out of the following options, which one
is not a normal aging process?
A.
Tooth loss
B.
Chronic constipation
C.
Reduced respiratory efficiency
D.
Decreased vital capacity
Answer: A
Explanation: Tooth loss is NOT a normal aging process.
Good dental hygiene, good nutrition, and dental care can prevent
tooth loss.
211.
Older persons have a higher risk of developing renal
failure because normal age-related changes result in compromised renal
functioning. What is
the first sign a nurse should notice as the indicator of loss of renal
integrity?
A.
Urinary output
B.
Hematuria
C.
Lungs failure
D.
Kidney failure
Answer: A
Explanation: The nurse should pay careful attention to urinary output in
older clients because it is the first sign of loss of renal integrity.
212.
The elderly with incontinence may seek isolation,
thereby predisposing themselves to loneliness. What is the percentage of
community-based elderly suffering from difficulties with bladder
control?
A.
30-50%
B.
15-30%
C.
20-40%
D.
40-60%
Answer: B
Explanation: 15 to 30% of community-based elderly and almost 50% of
elderly living in nursing homes suffer from difficulties with bladder
control.
213.
Older persons may be more sensitive to alcohol and caffeine since these
substances inhibit the production of antidiuretic hormone. Which is the
percentage of the functioning glomeruli decrease in older people?
A.
15%
B.
50%
C.
25%
D.
60%
Answer: B
Explanation: As one ages, the total number of functioning glomeruli
decreases until function has been reduced by nearly 50%.
214.
An elderly client is brought by his family to the
hospital having the following symptoms:
depression, night
wandering, is passive, and fails to recognize the family members. What
disease will the client be diagnosed with?
A.
Parkinson disease
B.
Alzheimer’s disease
C.
Sarcopenia
D.
Dopamine dysregulation syndrome
Answer: B
Explanation: Alzheimer’s disease is the most common irreversible
dementia of old age. It is
characterized by deficits in attention, learning, memory, and language
skills.
215.
Strokes from cerebral thrombosis are more common in older persons than
are strokes from cerebral hemorrhage.
When do clots tend to develop most?
A.
when patient is awake
B.
when patient is sleeping
C.
when patient is eating
D.
when patient makes physical activity
Answer: A
Explanation: Clots tend to develop when patient is awake or just
arousing.
216.
Normal loss of brain cells is compounded by alcohol, smoking, and
breathing polluted air. Which are the most common endocrine disorders in
the older adult?
A.
Caregiving and dementia
B.
Alzheimer’s disease
C.
Parkinson disease
D.
Diabetes
Answer: D
Explanation: The most common endocrine disorders in the older adult are
thyroid dysfunctions and diabetes.
217.
Strokes from cerebral thrombosis are more common in older persons than
are strokes from cerebral hemorrhage. What can the elderly persons
develop because of impaired mobility, impaired skin integrity, decreased
peripheral circulation, and lack of physical activity?
A.
Cataract
B.
decubitus ulders
C.
Heart failure
D.
Stroke
Answer: B
Explanation: Impaired mobility, impaired skin integrity, decreased
peripheral circulation, and a lack of physical activity place the
elderly at risk for developing decubitus ulders.
218.
Due to the fact that peripheral circulation decreases as one ages,
regular assessment of the feet is very important because it increases
the opportunity to discover and treat skin care problems early. What can
make these problems become more serious?
A.
decreased circulation
B.
blood pressure
C.
hypocalcemia
D.
hypoglycemia
Answer: A
Explanation: Problems that occur due to peripheral circulation decrease
can become more serious because of decreased circulation.
219.
One of the most frequent problems of aging that occurs is dry, wrinkled
skin. What is the reason of this occurrence in elderly persons?
A.
Loss of the subcutaneous fat and the second layer of skin
B.
Increase of the subcutaneous fat and the second layer of skin
C.
Dermis becomes too elastic
D.
Loss of subcutaneous fat and the third layer of skin
Answer: A
Explanation: Older persons have a dry, wrinkled skin because they lose
subcutaneous fat and the second layer of skin, the dermis, becomes less
elastic.
220.
A client has diminished eyesight due to aging. What can this lead to?
A.
Anxiety
B.
Nausea
C.
Lack of stimulation
D.
Hypertension
Answer: C
Explanation: Diminished eyesight results in loss of independence, lack
of stimulation and fear of blindness.
221.
The aging process has impact of almost every part of the organism. What
can presbycusis result in?
A.
fear of blindness
B.
decreased sensory stimulation
C.
loss of independence
D.
hypertension
Answer: B
Explanation: Presbycusis (age-related hearing loss) can result in
decreased socialization, avoidance of friends and family, decreased
sensory stimulation, and hazardous conditions when driving.
222.
A client is prescribed to take salicylates medication. What are the
common side effects of these drugs?
A.
mild liver enzyme elevation
B.
UTI
C.
Anemia
D.
Hair loss
Answer: A
Explanation: The side effects of salicylates are GI irritation,
tinnitus, thrombocytopenia, mild liver enzyme elevation.
223.
A nurse is caring for a client that is on NSAIDs medication. What is the
priority nursing intervention used with clients taking this type of
medication?
A.
teach client to take drugs with food
B.
prevent client from taking drugs with milk
C.
teach client to take medication before eating
D.
prevent client to take medication before sleeping
Answer: A
Explanation: The priority nursing intervention used with clients taking
NSAIDs is to administer or teach client to take drugs with food or milk.
224.
An elderly client has been brought to the hospital by his family and has
been diagnosed with arthritis in a severe stage. What are the most
common joints that are replaced in a client with arthritis?
A.
Knee
B.
Pelvis
C.
cartilaginous joint
D.
synovial joint
Answer: A
Explanation: the most common joints that are replaced in a client with
arthritis are the joints of hip, knee, and finger.
225.
A nurse is caring for a client that just went through a hand amputation
operation. How can be described the post-op stump care (after
amputation) for the 1st 48 hours?
A.
Nurse has to elevate stump only in the first 12 hours
B.
Nurse has to elevate stump the first 24 hours
C.
Nurse has to elevate stump the first 32 hours
D.
Nurse has to elevate stump only after 48 hours have passed
Answer: B
Explanation: In the first 48 hours, the nurse should elevate stump the
first 24 hours, but not after 48 hours, keep stump in extended position
and turn prone three times a day to prevent flexion contracture.
226.
While caring for a client a client who is in traction for a long bone
fracture, the nurse notices that he has a slight fever, is short of
breath, and restless. What does the client most likely have?
A.
Digitalis toxicity
B.
Fat embolism
C.
Phantom pain
D.
Venous thrombosis
Answer: B
Explanation: A client who is in traction for a long bone fracture which
has a slight fever, is short of breath, and restless is most likely to
have fat embolism.
227.
Fat embolism is characterized by hypoxemia, respiratory distress,
irritability, restlessness, fever and petechiae. What are the nursing
actions if the nurse suspects fat embolism in a client?
A.
Administer IV fluids
B.
draw blood gas results
C.
turn the client into high Flower’s position
D.
administer the client tranquilizers
Answer: B
Explanation: If the nurse
suspects fat embolism in a client, the first actions to do are notify
physician STAT, draw blood gas results, assist with endotracheal
intubation and treatment of respiratory failure.
228.
Due to a tragic car accident, a client suffers of immobility. What are
the most common problems associated with this?
A.
Venous thrombosis
B.
UTI
C.
Hypertension
D.
Hypoglycemia
Answer: A
Explanation: The 3
problems associated with immobility are venous thrombosis, urinary
calculi, and skin integrity problems.
229.
An immobilized client with musculoskeletal problems is in danger of
having thromboembolism. What are the efficient nursing interventions for
the prevention of thromboembolism in this client?
A.
elevation of foot of bed 29 degrees to increase venous return
B.
elevation of foot of bed 10 degrees to increase venous return
C.
elevation of foot of bed 25 degrees to increase venous return
D.
elevation of foot of bed 15 degrees to increase venous return
Answer: C
Explanation: The 3 nursing
interventions for the prevention of thromboembolism in immobilized
clients with musculoskeletal problems are passive range of motion
exercises, elastic stockings, and elevation of foot of bed 25 degrees to
increase venous return.
230.
While caring for a client, the nurse does the following things: educe
distraction before beginning conversation, look and listen to client,
and faces client directly. Out of the following options, what is the
client most probably suffering of?
A.
Blindness
B.
Deafness
C.
Anxiety
D.
Dementia
Answer: B
Explanation: While caring
for a deaf person, the nurse should reduce distraction before beginning
conversation, look and listen to client, give client full attention if
they are a lip reader, and face client directly.
231.
A nurse is assessing an unconscious client by using the Glasgow Coma
Scale and the score indicates 6. What meaning does this have regarding
the client’s situation?
A.
Client is in coma
B.
Client is in clinical death
C.
Client is not in coma
D.
Client suffers of trauma
Answer: C
Explanation: The Glasgow
Coma Scale is an objective assessment of the level of consciousness
based on a score of 3 to 15, with scores of 7 or less indicative of
coma.
232.
A client is caring for an elderly comatose client. What are the 4 4
nursing diagnoses for the comatose client in order of priority?
A.
Ineffective breathing pattern, ineffective airway clearance, impaired
gas exchange, and decreased cardiac output
B.
decreased cardiac output, impaired gas exchange, ineffective airway
clearance, and ineffective breathing pattern
C.
impaired gas exchange, ineffective airway clearance, ineffective
breathing pattern and decreased cardiac output
D.
Ineffective breathing pattern, decreased cardiac output, ineffective
airway clearance, and impaired gas exchange
Answer: A
Explanation: The 4 nursing
diagnoses for the comatose client in order of priority are ineffective
breathing pattern, ineffective airway clearance, impaired gas exchange,
and decreased cardiac output.
233.
A nurse is caring for an unconscious client in a severe situation. How
should the nurse position the client for max ventilation?
A.
Position the client in High Flower’s position for max. ventilation
B.
Position the client in prone
position for max. ventilation
C.
Position the client in supine position for max. ventilation
D.
Position the client in Tendelenberg’s position for max. ventilation
Answer: B
Explanation: The nurse
should position the client for maximum ventilation in prone or
semi-prone and slightly to one side.
234.
Vascular accidents are known to have severe effects on clients. What
persons are at at risk for cerebral vascular accidents?
A.
Persons that use oral contraceptives
B.
Persons with hypotension
C.
Persons with hypoglycemia
D.
Persons with renal failure
Answer: A
Explanation: Persons with
history of hypertension, previous TIAs, cardiac disease (atrial
flutter/fibrillation), diabetes, oral contraceptive use, and the elderly
are at risk for cerebral vascular accidents.
235.
Complications of immobility include the potential for thrombus
development. Which are the nursing interventions to prevent thrombi?
A.
IV fluids administration
B.
frequent (q2h) position changes
C.
salycilates drugs administration
D.
morphine administration
Answer: B
Explanation: The 3 nursing
interventions for preventing thrombi are frequent range of motion
exercises, frequent (q2h) position changes, and avoidance of positions
which decrease venous return.
236.
In an unconscious client, the nurse observes restlessness symptoms. What
could not be a rationale of restlessness in this client?
A.
return to consciousness
B.
covert bleeding
C.
distended bladder
D.
hypocalcemia
Answer: D
Explanation: Anoxia,
distended bladder, covert bleeding, or return to consciousness are the 4
rationales for the appearance of restlessness in the unconscious client.
237.
A nurse is caring for a comatose client since 3 days. What nursing
interventions prevent corneal drying in a comatose client?
A.
application of opthalmic ointment q8h
B.
close assessment for corneal ulceration
C.
close assessment for corneal drying
D.
avoidance of positions which decrease venous return
Answer: A
Explanation: Irrigation of
eyes PRN with sterile prescribed solution, application of opthalmic
ointment q8h, and closing assessment for corneal ulceration/drying are
the nursing interventions that prevent corneal drying in a comatose
client.
238.
A comatose client is under IV hyperalimentation. When does a comatose
client on IV hyperalimentation begin to receive tube feedings instead?
A.
When peristalsis resumes as evidenced by active bowel sounds, passage of
flatus or bowel movement.
B.
After establishment of regularity
C.
After close assessment for corneal ulceration/drying.
D.
After signs of distended bladder are detected
Answer: A
Explanation: A comatose
client on IV hyperalimentation begin to receive tube feedings instead
when peristalsis resumes as evidenced by active bowel sounds, passage of
flatus or bowel movement.
239.
A cerebral vascular accident is a disruption of blood supply to a part
of the brain. What can a cerebral vascular accident result in?
A.
Diabetes Type II
B.
Deafness
C.
Blindness
D.
loss of brain function
Answer: D
Explanation: A cerebral
accident can result in sudden loss of brain function.
240.
A client which has been diagnosed with CVA has symptoms of aphasia,
right hemiparesis, but no memory or hearing deficit. In what hemisphere
has the client most probably suffered a lesion?
A.
Right
B.
Left
C.
Superior left side
D.
Inferior right side
Answer: A client with a
diagnosis of CVA presents with symptoms of aphasia, right hemiparesis,
but no memory or hearing deficit has suffered a lesion in the left
hemisphere.
241.
A client brought to the emergency room has the following symptoms:
hypertension, , bladder and bowel distention, exaggerated autonomic
responses, headache, sweating, goose bumps, and bradycardia. What will
the client be diagnosed with in this case?
A.
autonomic dysreflexia
B.
spinal shock
C.
increased ICP
D.
cerebral vascular accident
Answer: A
Explanation: The symptoms
of autonomic dysreflexia are hypertension, bladder and bowel distention,
exaggerated autonomic responses, headache, sweating, goose bumps, and
bradycardia.
242.
A client brought to the emergency room has the following symptoms:
hypotension, bladder and bowel distention, total paralysis, lack of
sensation below lesion. What will be the diagnosis for this client?
A.
autonomic dysreflexia
B.
spinal shock
C.
increased ICP
D.
cerebral vascular accident
Answer: B
Explanation: Hypotension,
bladder and bowel distention, total paralysis, and lack of sensation
below lesion are the symptoms of spinal shock.
243.
Increased BP, widening pulse pressure, increased or decreased pulse,
respiratory irregularities and temperature increase are the vital sign
changes indicative of increased ICP. What is the most important
indicator of increased ICP?
A.
A change in the level of responsiveness
B.
Hypertension
C.
Coma
D.
bowel distention
Answer: A
Explanation: The most
important indicator of increased ICP is a change in the level of
responsiveness.
244.
An elderly person calls the nurse stating that he was knocked hard to
the floor by his very hyperactive dog. What is a symptom indicating
medical attention?
A.
Confusion
B.
Restlessness
C.
Anger
D.
Stress
Answer: A
Explanation: Symptoms
needing medical attention would include vertigo, confusion or any subtle
behavioral change, headache, vomiting, ataxia (imbalance), or seizure.
245.
The vital signs of increased ICP are increased BP, widening pulse
pressure, increased or decreased pulse, respiratory irregularities and
temperature increase. What activities and situations should be avoided
that increase ICP?
A.
Laying in same position
B.
Change in bed position
C.
Protein intake
D.
Vitamin K intake
Answer: B
Explanation: Change in bed
position, extreme hip flexion, endotracheal suctioning, compression of
jugular veins, coughing, vomiting, or straining of any kind should be
avoided because increase ICP.
246.
Hyperosmotic agents (osmotic diuretics) are used to treat intracranial
pressure act. How do they work?
A.
Dehydrate the brain and reduce cerebral edema by holding water in the
renal tubules to prevent reabsorption
B.
Hydrate the brain and increase cerebral edema by taking water from the
renal tubules to create reabsorption
C.
mask the level of responsiveness
D.
decrease pupillary response
Answer: A
Explanation: Hyperosmotic
agents (osmotic diuretics) dehydrate the brain and reduce cerebral edema
by holding water in the renal tubules to prevent reabsorption, and by
drawing fluid from the extravascular spaces into the plasma.
247.
A nurse is caring for a client with neurologic impairment. Why should
narcotics be avoided in such clients?
A.
dehydrate
B.
mask the level of responsiveness as well as pupillary response
C.
draw fluid from the extravascular spaces into the plasma
D.
create headaches
Answer: B
Explanation: Narcotics
should be avoided in clients with neurologic impairment because they
mask the level of responsiveness as well as pupillary response.
248.
Many diseases have headaches and vomiting as symptoms. When should the
nurse be alerted regarding these symptoms?
A.
When vomiting not associated with nausea
B.
When vomiting is associated with nausea
C.
Headache which is more severe while sleeping
D.
Headache which is more severe outdoors
Answer: A
Explanation: A nurse
should be alerted about vomiting and headaches when headache is more
severe upon awakening and vomiting is not associated with nausea are
symptoms of a brain tumor.
249.
A client has the following symptoms: headache which is more severe upon
awakening and vomiting not associated with nausea. Even if many diseases
have as symptoms headaches and vomiting, what do headache and vomiting
most probably indicate in this case?
A.
brain tumor
B.
Pilocytic Astrocytoma
C.
Pituitary Tumors
D.
Schwannoma
Answer: A
Explanation: Headache
which is more severe upon awakening and vomiting not associated with
nausea are symptoms of a brain tumor.
250.
A nurse is caring for a post-craniotomy client with infratentorial
lesions. How should the nurse position the client’s head of the bed in
this case?
A.
Infratentorial – flat; Supratentorial – elevated
B.
Infratentorial – elevated; Supratentorial – flat
C.
Infratumonar – elevated; Supratumonar- flat
D.
Infratumonar – flat; Supratumonar- elevated
Answer: A
Explanation: For
post-craniotomy clients with infratentorial lesions, the head of the bed
should be positioned in this way: Infratentorial – FLAT; Supratentorial
– elevated.
251.
A client has been diagnosed with sclerosis. What is the reason that it
is thought the sclerosis has appeared?
A.
because of an autoimmune process
B.
as consequence of spinal cord injury
C.
as consequence of increase ICP
D.
because of extreme hip flexion
Answer: A
Explanation: Sclerosis is
thought to occur because of an autoimmune process.
252.
A client has been diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. What drugs treatment
is efficient for treating this disease?
A.
Advil
B.
Acetasol
C.
Clozapine
D.
Anticholinesterase drugs
Answer: D
Explanation:
Anticholinesterase drugs are used for treating myasthenia gravis because
they inhibit the action of cholinesterase at the nerve endings to
promote the accumulation of acetylcholine at receptor sires, which
should improve neuronal transmission to muscles.
253.
A client’s diet is lacking in iron, folate and/or vitamin B12; he uses
salicylates, thiazides, diuretics and exposed to toxic agents such
insecticides. Out of the following diseases, what does he most probably
have?
A.
myasthenia gravis
B.
anemia
C.
digitalis toxicity
D.
hypotension
Answer: B
Explanation: Diet lacking
in iron, folate and/or vitamin B12; use of salicylates, thiazides,
diuretics; exposure to toxic agents such as lead or insecticides are
potential causes of anemia.
254.
Activity intolerance and altered tissue perfusion are the 2 nursing
diagnoses for the client suffering from anemia. What is the only
intravenous fluid compatible with blood products?
A.
Water
B.
Normal saline
C.
Sugar
D.
Vitamin C
Explanation: Normal saline
is the only intravenous fluid compatible with blood products.
255.
In a client occurs a hemolytic transfusion reaction. What should the
nurse do in this case?
A.
Turn off transfusion
B.
Take blood pressure
C.
Continue transfusion
D.
Keep vein patent with normal saccharide
Answer: A
Explanation: If a
hemolytic transfusion reaction occurs in a client, the nurse should take
the following actions: Turn off transfusion.
Take temperature.
Send blood being transfused to lab.
Obtain urine sample.
Keep vein patent with normal saline.
256.
A nurse is caring for a client with a tendency to bleed. What shouldn’t
the nurse do while caring for him?
A.
Use a soft toothbrush
B.
avoid salicylates
C.
avoid using suppositories
D.
use salicylates
Answer: D
Explanation: If a client
has the tendency to bleed, the nurse should advise him to a soft
toothbrush, avoid salicylates, and do not use suppositories.
257.
A nurse is assessing an immunosuppressed client. What sites should be
assessed for infection in such a client?
A.
Renal area
B.
Oral cavity
C.
Respiratory system
D.
Gastro-intestinal system
Answer: B
Explanation: Oral cavity
and genital area should be assessed for infection in immunosuppressed
clients.
258.
A client suffering from anemia has prescribed from his nurse intake of
vitamin B12. What food types contain vitamin B12 in considerable amount?
A.
green leafy vegetables
B.
beans
C.
juices
D.
banana
Answer: A
Explanation: 3 food
sources of vitamin b12 are glandular meats (liver), milk, and green
leafy vegetables.
259.
A client is in danger of invasive catheters and lines. What technique
should be used by the nurse in this case?
A.
ABC technique
B.
strict aseptic technique
C.
strict septic technique
D.
strict ABC technique
Answer: B
Explanation: care of
invasive catheters and lines involves the strict use of aseptic
technique. Change dressings 2 to 3 times/week or when soiled.
Use caution when piggybacking drugs, check purpose of line and
drug to be infused. Use
lines for obtaining blood samples to avoid “sticking” client when
possible.
260.
One of the safety precautions for the administration of antineoplastic
chemotherapy are checking for blood return prior to administration to
ensure that medication does not go into tissue. What for is Leucovorin
used?
A.
tranquilizer
B.
antidote used with methotrexate to prevent toxic reactions
C.
anti-depressive
D.
antidote used with salicylates to prevent toxic reactions
Answer: B
Explanation: Leucovorin is
used as an antidote with methotrexate to prevent toxic reactions.
261.
A nurse needs to collect blood through from a client. When should the
nurse draw blood?
A.
30 minutes prior to administration of antibiotic
B.
30 minutes after administration of antibiotic
C.
15 minutes prior to administration of antibiotic
D.
15 minutes after administration of antibiotic
Answer: A
Explanation: The
collection of through method implies the nurse to draw blood 30 minutes
prior to administration of antibiotic.
262.
A client has been diagnosed with Hodgkin’s disease and wants to know
more information about it. What should the nurse tell him that it is the
characteristic cell found in Hodgkin’s disease?
A.
Hypersegmented neutrophi
B.
Fibroblast
C.
Magnocellular neurosecretory cell
D.
Reed-Sternberg
Answer: D
Explanation:
Reed-Sternberg is the characteristic cell found in Hodgkin’s disease.
263.
A nurse is caring for a client with Hodgkin’s disease. Out of the
following options, which one is not an appropriate nursing intervention
for care of the client?
A.
Protect from infection
B.
Observe for anemia
C.
Encourage high-nutrient foods
D.
Isolation
Answer: D
Explanation: The 4 nursing
interventions for care of the client with Hodgkin’s disease are
protection from infection, observance of anemia, encouraging
high-nutrient foods and provide emotional support to client and family.
264.
A client has been diagnosed with fibromas. What should be the nursing
indications for a hysterectomy in this client?
A.
Severe menorrhagia leading to need of use of narcotic analgesics
B.
Severe menorrhagia leading to anemia
C.
severe dysmenorrheal leading to anemia
D.
severe dysmenorrheal is causing severe low back and pelvic pain
Answer: B
Explanation: in the client
who has fibromas, the indication for a hysterectomy are as follows:
Severe menorrhagia leading to anemia, severe dysmenorrhea requiring
narcotic analgesics, severe uterine enlargement causing pressure on
other organs, severe low back and pelvic pain.
265.
A client has the following symptoms: incontinence/stress incontinence,
urinary retention, and recurrent bladder infections. What disease of the
reproductive system might the client most probably have?
A.
Cystocele
B.
Fibromas
C.
cervical cancer
D.
breast cancer
Answer: A
Explanation: Symptoms and
conditions associated with cystocele are incontinence/stress
incontinence, urinary retention, and recurrent bladder infections.
266.
The symptoms most commonly associated with with cystocele are stress
incontinence, urinary retention, and recurrent bladder infections. What
conditions are usually associated with cystocele?
A.
menorrhagia leading to anemia
B.
severe dysmenorrhea requiring narcotic analgesics
C.
trauma in childbirth
D.
severe low back and pelvic pain
Answer: C
Explanation: Conditions
associated with cystocele include multiparity, trauma in childbirth, and
aging.
267.
A client just went though a hysterectomy operation with an A&P repair.
What are the most important nursing interventions for this postoperative
client?
A.
Do not permit pregnant visitors or pregnant caretakers in room
B.
Avoid rectal temps
C.
Discourage visits by small children
D.
Nurse must wear radiation badge
Answer: B
Explanation: the most
important nursing interventions for the postoperative client who has had
a hysterectomy with an A&P repair are avoiding rectal temps and/or
rectal manipulation; manage pain; and encourage early ambulation.
268.
A nurse is caring for a client who just had radiation implants. What are
the priority nursing care for this client?
A.
Avoid rectal temps
B.
Avoid rectal manipulation
C.
encourage early ambulation
D.
Do not permit pregnant visitors or pregnant caretakers in room
Answer: D
Explanation: The priority
nursing care for the client who has had radiation implants are not
permitting pregnant visitors or pregnant caretakers in room, discourage
visits by small children, and confine client to room. Nurse must wear
radiation badge. Nurse
limits time in room. Keep
supplies and equipment within client’s reach.
269.
Cervical cancer is suspected in a female client. What screening tool is
used by the nurse to detect this disease in the client?
A.
devices using fluorescence
B.
sensor
C.
mid-infrared lasers
D.
Pap smear
Answer: D
Explanation: Pap smear is
used for detecting cervical cancer in a client.
270.
Early cervical cancer detection is crucial in a client. What are the
American Cancer Society’s recommendations for women ages 30 to 70 with
three consecutive normal results?
A.
Women with 2 consecutive normal results may have pap smear every 1 to 2
years
B.
Women with 3 consecutive normal results may have pap smear every 2 to 3
years
C.
Women with 4 consecutive normal results may have pap smear every 3 to 4
years
D.
Women with 5 consecutive normal results may have pap smear every 4 to 5
years
Answer: B
Explanation: Women ages 30
to 70 with 3 consecutive normal results may have pap smear every 2 to 3
years.
271.
A client is undergoing a hysterectomy for cervical cancer. What is
altered body image related to?
A.
postoperative incision
B.
uterine removal
C.
infection
D.
anemia
Answer: B
Explanation: Altered body
image is related to uterine removal.
Pain is related to postoperative incision.
272.
Early detection of breast cancer can lead to efficient treatment of the
illness. At what age should the mammogram baseline be followed by exams
every 1 to 2 years?
A.
25
B.
35
C.
45
D.
28
Answer: B
Explanation: Breast
self-exam monthly; mammogram baseline at age 35 followed by exams every
1 to 2 years in 40s and every year after age 50; physical examination by
a professional skilled in examination of the breast.
273.
A nurse is caring for a post mastectomy client. What should the nurse do
for decreasing edema in the client?
A.
Discourage hand activity and use
B.
Injection
C.
Venipuncture
D.
Position arm on operative side on pillow
Answer: D
Explanation: The 3 nursing
interventions to help decrease edema post mastectomy are positioning arm
on operative side on pillow, avoid BP measurements, injections, or
venipunctures in operative arm and encourage hand activity and use.
274.
A client was diagnosed with nongonococcal urethritis and wants to know
the cause of his disease. What is the most common cause of it?
A.
Treponema pallidum
B.
Chlamydia trachomatis
C.
Trichomonas vaginalis
D.
Herpes Simplex Type II
Answer: B
Explanation: the most
common cause of nongonococcal urethritis is Chlamydia trachomatis.
275.
Syphilis was one of the most deadly diseases of the 20th
century. What is its causative agent?
A.
Chlamydia trachomatis
B.
Trichomonas vaginalis
C.
Herpes Simplex Type II
D.
Spirochete bacteria
Answer: D
Explanation: Treponema
pallidum (spirochete bacteria) is the causative agent for syphilis.
276.
A client diagnosed with STD has malodorous, frothy, greenish-yellow
vaginal discharge. What type of STD are these symptoms characteristic?
A.
Chlamydia trachomatis
B.
Trichomonas vaginalis
C.
Herpes Simplex Type II
D.
Spirochete bacteria
Answer: B
Explanation: Malodorous,
frothy, greenish-yellow vaginal discharge is characteristic for
Trichomonas vaginalis.
277.
An 18 years old client is suspected of STD. What STD type is
characterized by remissions and exacerbations in both males and females?
A.
Herpes Simplex Type II
B.
Herpes Simplex Type I
C.
AIDS
D.
Trichomonas vaginalis
Answer: A
Explanation: Herpes
Simplex Type II is characterized by remissions and exacerbations in both
males and females.
278.
Burn depth is a measure of severity. What burn degree of burn is
characterized by destruction of epidermis and upper layers of dermis;
skin white or red, very edematous, sensitive to touch and cold air, and
hair does not pull out easily?
A.
1st degree
B.
2nd degree
C.
3rd degree
D.
4th degree
Answer: B
Explanation: The 2nd
degree burns are characterized by destruction of epidermis and upper
layers of dermis; skin white or red, very edematous, sensitive to touch
and cold air, and hair does not pull out easily.
279.
After an unfortunate kitchen accident in which the 2 year old child’s
skin came in contact with a considerable amount of hot oil, the child is
brought to the hospital having the following burn symptoms: total
destruction of dermis and epidermis; reddened areas do not blanch with
pressure, not painful, inelastic, waxy white skin to brown, leathery
eschar. What type of burn has he most probably suffered of?
A.
1st degree
B.
2nd degree
C.
3rd degree
D.
4th degree
Answer: C
Explanation:
Full-thickness: 3rd degree = total destruction of dermis and
epidermis; reddened areas do not blanch with pressure, not painful,
inelastic, waxy white skin to brown, leathery eschar.
280.
Burn depth is a measure of severity.
What are the characteristics of the 2nd burns degree?
A.
pink to red skin (i.e., sunburn), slight edema
B.
destruction of epidermis and upper layers of dermis
C.
total destruction of dermis and epidermis
D.
inelastic, waxy white skin to brown, leathery eschar
Answer: B
Explanation: Deep
partial-thickness: 2nd degree = destruction of epidermis and
upper layers of dermis; white or red, very edematous, sensitive to touch
and cold air, hair does not pull out easily.
281.
A nurse needs to do fluid management in the emergent phase of the burned
client she is caring of. What does fluid management in the emergent
phase imply?
A.
Maintain patent infusion site in case supplemental IV fluids are needed
B.
Replacement of fluids is titrated to urine output
C.
No extra fluids needed, but high-protein drinks are recommended
D.
heparin lock is helpful
Answer: B
Explanation: Stage I
(Emergent phase): Replacement of fluids is titrated to urine output.
282.
A nurse is caring for a burned client in and needs to maintain patent
infusion site in case supplemental IV fluids are needed. In what stage
had the nurse to apply fluid management?
A.
Stage I
B.
Stage II
C.
Stage III
D.
Stage IV
Answer: B
Explanation: Stage II
(Acute phase): Maintain patent infusion site in case supplemental IV
fluids are needed; heparin lock is helpful; may use colloids.
283.
A nurse is caring for a burned
client and needs to apply pain management. What pain medication should
the nurse administer prior to dressing wound?
A.
Morphine 10 mg
B.
Morphine 0.5 mg
C.
Planum 10 mg
D.
Rivotril 0.5 mg
Answer: A
Explanation: The nurse
should administer pain medication, especially prior to dressing wound
Morphine 10 mg.
284.
Pain management of a burned client implies Morphine 10 mg administration
and teaching of distraction/relaxation techniques. What does outline
admission care of the burned client imply?
A.
Replacement of fluids is titrated to urine output
B.
heparin lock is helpful
C.
high-protein drinks are recommended
D.
Provide a patent airway as intubation may be necessary
Answer: D
Explanation: Outline
admission care of the burned client implies providing of a patent airway
as intubation may be necessary.
Determine baseline data.
Initiate fluid and electrolyte therapy.
Administer pain medication.
Determine depth and extent of burn.
Administer tetanus toxoid.
Insert NG tube.
285.
Nutritional status is a major concern when caring for a burned client.
What is a specific dietary interventions used with burned
clients?
A.
“free” water
B.
Low-protein
C.
High-calorie
D.
Low-carbohydrate diet
Answer: B
Explanation: 3 specific
dietary interventions used with burned clients are high-calorie,
high-protein, and high-carbohydrate diet. Medications with juice or
milk. NO “free” water.
Tube feeding at night.
Maintain accurate, daily calorie counts.
Weigh client daily.
286.
A nurse is caring for a client with chemical burns. What method of
extinguishing the burns should be used by the nurse in this case?
A.
remove clothing
B.
immerse in tepid water
C.
flush with water or saline
D.
separate client from electrical source
Answer: C
Explanation: The method of
extinguishing chemical burns is flushing the burns with water or saline.
287.
A nurse is caring for a client with thermal burns. What method of
extinguishing the burns should be used by the nurse in this case?
A.
immerse in tepid water
B.
flush with water or saline
C.
roll the client on the floor
D.
apply cold water with alcohol
Answer: A
Explanation: The method of
extinguishing thermal wounds is immerse in tepid water and remove
clothing.
288.
A client comes to the emergency room having the following symptoms:
singed nasal hairs, circumoral burns; sooty or bloody sputum,
hoarseness, assymetry of respirations, and rales. What type of burn has
he most probably suffered of?
A.
Thermal burn
B.
Electrical burn
C.
Chemical burn
D.
inhalation burn
Answer: D
Explanation: The 4 signs
of an inhalation burn are singed nasal hairs, circumoral burns; sooty or
bloody sputum, hoarseness, and pulmonary signs including: assymetry of
respirations, rales or wheezing.
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